Enigma76
Active member
RMS can you go into further detail about the biochemical processes around this molecule?
The writeup is confusing to me. I understand that this compound is an oxime derivative of DHT. From the writeup, however, it suggests that this compound converts into DHT but, due to the oxime addition, is not metabolized by 3a-HSD. It is continually compared to DHT regarding effects, binding properties and elimination.
To finally clarify and clear up these PH/designer steroid questions. When someone takes "The One", does it undergo any enzymatic changes in the body prior to activation? If yes, via what enzyme? Or is it metabolically active in its current form, and simply needs to survive the first-pass hepatic metabolism to bind and activate AR gene transcription?
I know it was postulated that 1-AD had intrinsic effects (binding to the AR prior to conversion to 1-T) as well as enzymatic conversion to 1-T which has its own binding properties. So it is possible for a compound to have both its own intrinsic activity and activity through its metabolites.
To those confused about this, and any other, product being a PH/PS/DS. If the molecule requires conversion prior to being active, it should be termed a prohormone or prosteroid (interchangable for all intents and purposes in this setting, though not all hormones are steroids). The pro- prefix denotes that it is a precursor to something else active. If it does not require conversion, it should be termed a "designer steroid" or some derivation thereof.
The writeup is confusing to me. I understand that this compound is an oxime derivative of DHT. From the writeup, however, it suggests that this compound converts into DHT but, due to the oxime addition, is not metabolized by 3a-HSD. It is continually compared to DHT regarding effects, binding properties and elimination.
To finally clarify and clear up these PH/designer steroid questions. When someone takes "The One", does it undergo any enzymatic changes in the body prior to activation? If yes, via what enzyme? Or is it metabolically active in its current form, and simply needs to survive the first-pass hepatic metabolism to bind and activate AR gene transcription?
I know it was postulated that 1-AD had intrinsic effects (binding to the AR prior to conversion to 1-T) as well as enzymatic conversion to 1-T which has its own binding properties. So it is possible for a compound to have both its own intrinsic activity and activity through its metabolites.
To those confused about this, and any other, product being a PH/PS/DS. If the molecule requires conversion prior to being active, it should be termed a prohormone or prosteroid (interchangable for all intents and purposes in this setting, though not all hormones are steroids). The pro- prefix denotes that it is a precursor to something else active. If it does not require conversion, it should be termed a "designer steroid" or some derivation thereof.