Most don't even remember, but there was a SARS-CoV1 outbreak in 2002. I do not think it reached it reached "pandemic" levels, it is said less than 800 people died worldwide, with about 8,000 confirmed cases.
Now you have SARS-CoV2, which is supposedly closely related to the SARS-CoV1 virus. And it makes the jump to 6 MILLION deaths and over 500 MILLION confirmed cases worldwide? For me that is hard to understand if the viruses are so similar. I don't claim to be a scientist, and I am not pushing any conspiracy theories, I am just trying to understand this and was hoping someone could shed light on how the infection/lethality rates are so different if the viruses are in fact closely related.
The other thing with COVID-19, is there was an obsessive, compulsive, neurotic push to get as many people tested as possible, even if they had NO SYMPTOMS. This no doubt drove up the cases numbers, making the whole thing seem more dangerous than it really was. Am I wrong to think that? I try to have an open mind but it feels like the COVID virus was overblown, and I don't trust any of the "official" numbers.
Now you have SARS-CoV2, which is supposedly closely related to the SARS-CoV1 virus. And it makes the jump to 6 MILLION deaths and over 500 MILLION confirmed cases worldwide? For me that is hard to understand if the viruses are so similar. I don't claim to be a scientist, and I am not pushing any conspiracy theories, I am just trying to understand this and was hoping someone could shed light on how the infection/lethality rates are so different if the viruses are in fact closely related.
The other thing with COVID-19, is there was an obsessive, compulsive, neurotic push to get as many people tested as possible, even if they had NO SYMPTOMS. This no doubt drove up the cases numbers, making the whole thing seem more dangerous than it really was. Am I wrong to think that? I try to have an open mind but it feels like the COVID virus was overblown, and I don't trust any of the "official" numbers.