Just curious if anybody knows. There's a big difference in the typical free vs total test, but there's also a big variance in the ratio depending on the person. Some people will have 40:1 and others may have 3:1, but which T number determines things like gyno and skin oilyness?
So to keep it simple, lets say we have two identical men. One has a total T of 1200 and a free T of 50. The 2nd man has a total T of 500 and free T of 300. All other things being equal, is there a clear answer as to which is more likely to have androgenic sides?
I've heard a couple sources vaguely imply it's total T and that's what my gut tells me but is there definitive medial data on this?
So to keep it simple, lets say we have two identical men. One has a total T of 1200 and a free T of 50. The 2nd man has a total T of 500 and free T of 300. All other things being equal, is there a clear answer as to which is more likely to have androgenic sides?
I've heard a couple sources vaguely imply it's total T and that's what my gut tells me but is there definitive medial data on this?