Recent content by aaat2007

When did you get yours?

I purchased a new bottle of Havoc from a widely known reputable source. But, the cap, capsules, and smell is a bit different. Didn't even have the plastic wrap on the bottle this time. What do you think?

Thats why im confused. Several people on similar forums have reported being prescribed "sarms". Ive seen MK-677 being allegedly prescribed a few times.

It looks like several people have been lucky enough to find a clinician open to prescribing SARMS. This is surprising to me as I thought these were research drugs. Which SARMs are available as a prescription?

Can you DM me what brand this is and how you take it?

Isnt proven peptides a reputable source? Regarding the swelling (puffy face), does that go away?

I understand that MK677 stimulates IGF-1 secretion but does this take a few days to occur? Im taking it for the apetite effects but have yet to feel anything after 1 week. I have the liquid form from PP. Should I take it at a specific time or with food?

What type of side effects? The only one that I am aware of is decreased libido, but my doctor told me it occurs in maybe 3% of the population.

It seems that taking finasteride with epistane is discouraged. Is this true? Can someone explain this logic to me?

I pretty much said exactly what you said in your first paragraph, several times. Idk why this thread is getting to so many people. Regarding your comment on law school and medschool...idk where youre getting this information but my PT school shares a curriculum with a med school and we...

Yes this is a good answer and sheds light on another consideration. Test may be admistered differently in the clinic than 40mg a day for 6 weeks, therefore the negative feedback is different.

Yes, thats exactly what I tried to say several times but still faced strong antagonist comments. I personally use PCT. I just want to know the discrepancy between this community and the medical community. IMO, it is because we havr different goals. The physician doesnt mind taking extra time to...

Negative feedback involves receptor kinetics. If you are implying that negative feedback does not, and therefore ANY exogenous hormone can cause full inhibition, you are denying dose dependent effects, which underminds receptor kinetics. My understanding of how negative feedback works is in...

In terms of using it, probably. In terms of understanding the physiology/molecular mechanisms behind it, no (as supported by this thread). Still yet to see a scientifically coherent explanation on this topic, yet a lot of people here are claiming to be scientific.

Where in that ONE sentence did I say that?