Mccain vs. Obama - Lets see it.

Mccain or Obama?

  • John Mccain for President

    Votes: 87 49.2%
  • Barack Obama for President

    Votes: 78 44.1%
  • Independent/Third Party

    Votes: 12 6.8%

  • Total voters
    177
RobInKuwait

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brotha, i'm out of politics. i was just curious as to why his numbers were higher in this poll than they are in my newspaper.
Its all speculation. I have a couple of theories....

- Many bodybuilders are independent, rational people who don't want government telling them how to live their life.

- There's probably not too many lower class bodybuilders, which takes away part of Obama's base.

- There's a pretty strong republican/libertarian base here making posts that keeping folks away from the deadly Obama Kool Aid.
 

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My bro-in-law just sent this to me. Thought it was funny.
 
Mulletsoldier

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Here's the wiki definition:

Socialism refers to a broad set of economic theories of social organization advocating state or collective ownership and administration of the means of production and distribution of goods, and the creation of an egalitarian society...
Rob, are you familiar with the collected works of John Maynard Keynes?

This is from the Wiki:

As Keynes recognizes in his magnum opus which was published in 1936, the General Theory of Employment, Interest and Money, his efforts challenged the economic paradigm. In the foreword to the German edition of the General Theory,[3] Keynes states that "the theory of aggregated production, which is the point of the following book, nevertheless can be much easier adapted to the conditions of a totalitarian state (eines totalen Staates) than the theory of production and distribution of a given production put forth under conditions of free competition and a large degree of laissez-faire."

In this book Keynes put forward a theory based upon the notion of aggregate demand to explain variations in the overall level of economic activity, such as were observed in the Great Depression. The total income in a society is defined by the sum of consumption and investment; and in a state of unemployment and unused production capacity, one can only enhance employment and total income by first increasing expenditures for either consumption or investment. The book was indexed by Keynes's student, later the economist David Bensusan-Butt.

The total amount of saving in a society is determined by the total income and thus, the economy could achieve an increase of total saving, even if the interest rates were lowered to increase the expenditures for investment. The book advocated activist economic policy by government to stimulate demand in times of high unemployment, for example by spending on public works. The book is often viewed as the foundation of modern macroeconomics. Historians agree that Keynes influenced U.S. president Roosevelt's New Deal, but disagree as to what extent. Deficit spending of the sort the New Deal began in 1938 had previously been called "pump priming" and had been endorsed by President Herbert Hoover. Few senior economists in the U.S. agreed with Keynes in the 1930s. With time, however, his ideas became more widely accepted.[4]
Cursory knowledge of either schools (Maxism-Socialism/Keynesian-NeoKeynesian theory) would reveal two things: a) that you are using the term Socialism improperly in applying it Obama and; b) that Obama's fiscal policy is very ostensibly interventionist; obviously, interventionist does not equate to Socialist, as they are entirely separate political and economic idioms.
 
RobInKuwait

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Rob, are you familiar with the collected works of John Maynard Keynes?

This is from the Wiki:



Cursory knowledge of either schools (Maxism-Socialism/Keynesian-NeoKeynesian theory) would reveal two things: a) that you are using the term Socialism improperly in applying it Obama and; b) that Obama's fiscal policy is very ostensibly interventionist; obviously, interventionist does not equate to Socialist, as they are entirely separate political and economic idioms.
No, I wasn't familiar with Keynes works until you wrote this.

My interpretation of what you're saying is Keynesian economics is "trickle up" economics, focusing on ensuring everybody has employment and income. Is that correct?

My question for you, is given this definition:

Socialism refers to a broad set of economic theories of social organization advocating state or collective ownership and administration of the means of production and distribution of goods, and the creation of an egalitarian society...
couldn't one argue that nationalizing key industries and redistributing income are steps toward Socialism, whether or not they also meet the Keynesian criteria? To me, Keynesian economics falls in line with several Socialist tenets, including the state administration of means of production, distribution of goods, and creation of an egalitarian society...
 
Mulletsoldier

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No, I wasn't familiar with Keynes works until you wrote this.

My interpretation of what you're saying is Keynesian economics is "trickle up" economics, focusing on ensuring everybody has employment and income. Is that correct?
Essentially, but strictly as a function of market regulation, and not what is popularly (I will address that below) considered, "Socialist Intentions". While some of his theories were empirically disproved - though, later reinvigorated by the NeoKeynesian school - Keynes saw the intricate relationship between total employment and real wages as a market detriment (as employment increased, real wages proportionately decrease - Inflation); in order to counter inflation, he felt Government spending through Social Welfare Programs was necessary as an intervening step in the economy. This fits Obama's intentions to a 'T'.

My question for you, is given this definition:
Socialism refers to a broad set of economic theories of social organization advocating state or collective ownership and administration of the means of production and distribution of goods, and the creation of an egalitarian society...

couldn't one argue that nationalizing key industries and redistributing income are steps toward Socialism, whether or not they also meet the Keynesian criteria? To me, Keynesian economics falls in line with several Socialist tenets, including the state administration of means of production, distribution of goods, and creation of an egalitarian society...
First, let me address the overlay between Keynesian economics and Socialism, and then proceed to deliberately hash-out the true form of the term Socialism.

Very bluntly, almost none of these aforementioned tenets of Socialism are fundamental tenets of Keynes work; none. I can assure you, Keynes was as far from an 'Egalitarian' or 'working-poor apologist' as one can get. He merely saw a certain inability (rightfully or wrongfully) of the Free Market to regulate itself to its fullest capacity; therefore, he recognized Government-interjection as a primary means of market regulation - i.e., his postulate is not to take control of the pre-existing Means and Social Relations of Production, but rather to use Government spending as a means to control Booms, and avoid Recessions (sound familiar?). Essentially, his modus operandi is to run Government deficits when necessary to avoid Private Sector market saturation - whether you agree with this or not, is your particular opinion; I am merely expounding here.

Obviously, as he does not postulate for the 'Government' (will address that below) to rebuke the control of the Means of Production from the Private Sector; does not at all have an aversion to a strict bifurcation of socio-economic gradients; and, most of all, has no revolutionary tendencies (he was quite the bourgeois himself), Keynesianism is not Socialism.

Now, what is this true form of Socialism I refer to; and, most importantly, how does it differ from the popular conceptualization. To address that, let me put forward an illuminative caveat about Marx's work: Socialism is not at heart a political, or governmental system, it is a Socially-Economic one - that is, it is first and foremost a Labour movement. What, then, is illuminative about this point:

a) Redistribution of Income - a popular derogatory catchphrase often used by EasyEJL and yourself, it is meant to convey a 'redistribution' of personal income vis-a-vis government taxation reform; however, this has little-to-nothing to do with a Marxian conceptualization of Redistribution of Wealth. First and foremost, 'wealth' and 'income' are being interchangeably used here to denote the same form of Capital; quite simply, they are not. In fact, in both Das Kapital and A Contribution to a Critique on Political Economy Marx makes almost no mention to individual taxation to redistribute moneys in the form of income. Why, though? Simply because Marx did not view moneys as a primary source of Wealth (i.e., accumulated Capital); in that respect, constant and variable Capital (means of production differentiated to non-human and human labour respectively) are the primary source of new value in Marxian Economics. Income is an end-point function of Capital exchange, whereas Wealth is a primary accumulation of new value - in a Marxian sense, they are not interchangeable.

So - despite the fact Marx rarely, rarely used the term Redistribution of Wealth for the aforementioned reasons - Redistribution of Wealth in a Marxian sense means fundamentally altering what he felt to be the appropriative relation between Capitalist and Labourer - i.e., to rebuke the control of the capacity to work - itself a form of Private Property - of the Labourer from the Capitalist, and make it a Social good: To 'Socialize' (in a literal sense) the Means of Production (literally the human capacity to labour). It has nothing to do with personal taxation, and merely means establishing a more equitable relationship between those who control the Means of Production and dictate the Social Relations of production and; those who carry out the collective activities which comprise them.

b) State Administration of the Means of Production - This may be another illuminative point in respects to Marx: He despised Nationalism as he though it was merely another tired, romantic means of oppressing the proletariat. As I stated above, Socialism is not a political movement, but a Labour movement.

It is also in the misuse of this concept where people their most glaring ineptitudes about Marx's concepts. I have often seen individuals say, "I don't want my government telling me what I can eat, what I can say, where I can dance" as they equate this inhibitory role of government to Socialism; in fact, that is in no way Marx's Socialism, but rather: Totalitarianism - they are not one in the same. In fact, Marx viewed man's propensity to make music, to fraternize, to engage in collective social activities as one of the most unfortunate casualties of Capitalism: he felt as these things are readily commodified, they too become a force alien to the natural man - a mere commodity. In actual fact, Socialism, in his eyes, is: "The full realization and actualization of each man in his natural capacity".

The events which transpired from 1918 onward were more of Lenin's design than Marx's: Marx simply did not address the specific political form of a Worker's Union State, and Lenin elaborated given the specific socio-historical context of Russia at the time. The later events of the Stalin-led U.S.S.R., were even more disconnected with the work of Marx. Simply put, 'Nationalization' was a despised concept of Marx. and even a cursory glance at his simplest work, "The Communist Manifesto" would reveal this; the last line reads as follows:

Workers of the World unite!

That single line is probably the most succinct explanation of his theory possible; he literally was a 'working man's' scholar; his entire goal was to eradicate labour exploitation.

Obviously, the differences are abound between Keynesianism, Socialism, and the popular conceptualization of Socialism. Unfortunately, Rob, if one lives in the United States - unless they have studied the primary documents themselves - one's concept of Socialism is completely warped and dissonant from the original attempt; 'Socialist' has become a colloquial catchphrase meant to denote a wide-range of defamatory social and political monickers that have nothing to do with actual Socialism.
 
RobInKuwait

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Essentially, but strictly as a function of market regulation, and not what is popularly (I will address that below) considered, "Socialist Intentions". While some of his theories were empirically disproved - though, later reinvigorated by the NeoKeynesian school - Keynes saw the intricate relationship between total employment and real wages as a market detriment (as employment increased, real wages proportionately decrease - Inflation); in order to counter inflation, he felt Government spending through Social Welfare Programs was necessary as an intervening step in the economy. This fits Obama's intentions to a 'T'.
I find this interesting. I've been reading up on Keynes quite a bit since you wrote this.

First, let me address the overlay between Keynesian economics and Socialism, and then proceed to deliberately hash-out the true form of the term Socialism.

Very bluntly, almost none of these aforementioned tenets of Socialism are fundamental tenets of Keynes work; none. I can assure you, Keynes was as far from an 'Egalitarian' or 'working-poor apologist' as one can get. He merely saw a certain inability (rightfully or wrongfully) of the Free Market to regulate itself to its fullest capacity; therefore, he recognized Government-interjection as a primary means of market regulation - i.e., his postulate is not to take control of the pre-existing Means and Social Relations of Production, but rather to use Government spending as a means to control Booms, and avoid Recessions (sound familiar?). Essentially, his modus operandi is to run Government deficits when necessary to avoid Private Sector market saturation - whether you agree with this or not, is your particular opinion; I am merely expounding here.

Obviously, as he does not postulate for the 'Government' (will address that below) to rebuke the control of the Means of Production from the Private Sector; does not at all have an aversion to a strict bifurcation of socio-economic gradients; and, most of all, has no revolutionary tendencies (he was quite the bourgeois himself), Keynesianism is not Socialism.
Obviously you're very well read on the intricacies of Socialism. However, if Socialism is not the word for what I have been attempting to describe.

Here's a wiki on Mixed Economies:

A mixed economy is an economic system that incorporates aspects of more than one economic system. This usually means an economy that contains both privately-owned and state-owned enterprises or that combines elements of capitalism and socialism, or a mix of market economy and planned economy characteristics.

Based upon this definition, a mixed economy is a blend between the extremes of capitalism and socialism. What do you propose one calls a state controlled economy if not socialism?

Now, what is this true form of Socialism I refer to; and, most importantly, how does it differ from the popular conceptualization. To address that, let me put forward an illuminative caveat about Marx's work: Socialism is not at heart a political, or governmental system, it is a Socially-Economic one - that is, it is first and foremost a Labour movement. What, then, is illuminative about this point:

a) Redistribution of Income - a popular derogatory catchphrase often used by EasyEJL and yourself, it is meant to convey a 'redistribution' of personal income vis-a-vis government taxation reform; however, this has little-to-nothing to do with a Marxian conceptualization of Redistribution of Wealth. First and foremost, 'wealth' and 'income' are being interchangeably used here to denote the same form of Capital; quite simply, they are not. In fact, in both Das Kapital and A Contribution to a Critique on Political Economy Marx makes almost no mention to individual taxation to redistribute moneys in the form of income. Why, though? Simply because Marx did not view moneys as a primary source of Wealth (i.e., accumulated Capital); in that respect, constant and variable Capital (means of production differentiated to non-human and human labour respectively) are the primary source of new value in Marxian Economics. Income is an end-point function of Capital exchange, whereas Wealth is a primary accumulation of new value - in a Marxian sense, they are not interchangeable.

So - despite the fact Marx rarely, rarely used the term Redistribution of Wealth for the aforementioned reasons - Redistribution of Wealth in a Marxian sense means fundamentally altering what he felt to be the appropriative relation between Capitalist and Labourer - i.e., to rebuke the control of the capacity to work - itself a form of Private Property - of the Labourer from the Capitalist, and make it a Social good: To 'Socialize' (in a literal sense) the Means of Production (literally the human capacity to labour). It has nothing to do with personal taxation, and merely means establishing a more equitable relationship between those who control the Means of Production and dictate the Social Relations of production and; those who carry out the collective activities which comprise them.

b) State Administration of the Means of Production - This may be another illuminative point in respects to Marx: He despised Nationalism as he though it was merely another tired, romantic means of oppressing the proletariat. As I stated above, Socialism is not a political movement, but a Labour movement.

It is also in the misuse of this concept where people their most glaring ineptitudes about Marx's concepts. I have often seen individuals say, "I don't want my government telling me what I can eat, what I can say, where I can dance" as they equate this inhibitory role of government to Socialism; in fact, that is in no way Marx's Socialism, but rather: Totalitarianism - they are not one in the same. In fact, Marx viewed man's propensity to make music, to fraternize, to engage in collective social activities as one of the most unfortunate casualties of Capitalism: he felt as these things are readily commodified, they too become a force alien to the natural man - a mere commodity. In actual fact, Socialism, in his eyes, is: "The full realization and actualization of each man in his natural capacity".

The events which transpired from 1918 onward were more of Lenin's design than Marx's: Marx simply did not address the specific political form of a Worker's Union State, and Lenin elaborated given the specific socio-historical context of Russia at the time. The later events of the Stalin-led U.S.S.R., were even more disconnected with the work of Marx. Simply put, 'Nationalization' was a despised concept of Marx. and even a cursory glance at his simplest work, "The Communist Manifesto" would reveal this; the last line reads as follows:

Workers of the World unite!

That single line is probably the most succinct explanation of his theory possible; he literally was a 'working man's' scholar; his entire goal was to eradicate labour exploitation.

Obviously, the differences are abound between Keynesianism, Socialism, and the popular conceptualization of Socialism. Unfortunately, Rob, if one lives in the United States - unless they have studied the primary documents themselves - one's concept of Socialism is completely warped and dissonant from the original attempt; 'Socialist' has become a colloquial catchphrase meant to denote a wide-range of defamatory social and political monickers that have nothing to do with actual Socialism.
Interesting read. Thanks for the comments Mullet. I learn a lot from you.
 
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Obviously you're very well read on the intricacies of Socialism. However, if Socialism is not the word for what I have been attempting to describe.

Here's a wiki on Mixed Economies:

A mixed economy is an economic system that incorporates aspects of more than one economic system. This usually means an economy that contains both privately-owned and state-owned enterprises or that combines elements of capitalism and socialism, or a mix of market economy and planned economy characteristics.

Based upon this definition, a mixed economy is a blend between the extremes of capitalism and socialism. What do you propose one calls a state controlled economy if not socialism?
Define your operative term here: Control. I would say acts of regulation, which every modern nation-state carries out to a certain extent, are not control. 'Free Markets' are essentially non-existent, and this is partially due to the influence of Mr.Keynes.

Interesting read. Thanks for the comments Mullet. I learn a lot from you.
Oi!
 
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... 'Free Markets' are essentially non-existent, and this is partially due to the influence of Mr.Keynes....
As you know, Mr. Friedman (Milton) provided rigorous counter-balance! To my mind, one of the most productive (and prolific) epochs in the history of economic science was the famous Monetarist-Keynesian debate that followed the Samuelsonian Neo-Classical Synthesis. The subsequent Neo-Keynesians and Neo-Classicals, and the Nobel Prizes they share between them, bear testimony to the intellectual depth of that encounter.
 
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Obama supports partial birth abortion, which is just disgusting to me...
 
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During the first year after the Partial-Birth Abortion Ban Act was introduced in mid-1995, many opponents of the bill, such as NARAL's Kate Michelman and syndicated columnist Ellen Goodman, insisted that anesthesia given to the mother painlessly kills the babies before they are pulled feet-first from the womb and stabbed through the back of the skull. But in congressional testimony in 1996 -- virtually ignored by the news media -- this myth was emphatically refuted by the heads of the two major professional societies of anesthesiologists. Other experts testified that the babies are alive and fully capable of experiencing great pain during a partial-birth abortion. To learn more about the pain that partial-birth abortion inflicts on pre-mature human babies, and about the "anesthesia myth,"
 
RobInKuwait

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Define your operative term here: Control. I would say acts of regulation, which every modern nation-state carries out to a certain extent, are not control. 'Free Markets' are essentially non-existent, and this is partially due to the influence of Mr.Keynes.
I'll acknowledge that Free Markets are non-existent in today's society. However, regulators do have the power to manipulate and therefore control the economy. Look at the FDA, they have dragged their feet on getting foreign competitor's drugs approved in order for US companies who provide large dollars to them a similar drug out first. Government economic intervention and regulation opens more opportunities for corruption than would ever be available in a free market.

You can go back to the 1860s and see the government subsidizing railroads to see the waste and unfair competition government interference in the economy produces. The transcontinental railroad basically put every railroad that attempted to finance themselves through private means out of business.

I wouldn't blame the mixed economy exclusively on Mr. Keynes, he just gave government's economic policy of force a palatable intellectual justification, just as Marx did before him, even though that was never either of their intentions. In my eyes the differences between Socialism and Keynesian Economics are far more subtle than the differences between Capitalism and Keynesian Economics.

Ever notice politics of force and control always seem to get a foothold with political movements?
 
Mulletsoldier

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I'll acknowledge that Free Markets are non-existent in today's society. However, regulators do have the power to manipulate and therefore control the economy. Look at the FDA, they have dragged their feet on getting foreign competitor's drugs approved in order for US companies who provide large dollars to them a similar drug out first. Government economic intervention and regulation opens more opportunities for corruption than would ever be available in a free market.
I would disagree. I true Free Market is predicated upon absolute opportunity; of course, this applies to both corruption and benevolent economic behavior. Regulation is predicated upon controlled opportunity to avoid market saturation, corruption and so forth. History would most definitely disagree with your position - examples ranging from Rocka., Empire to Microsoft - though I may have confused your point.

This is not to say that either Interventionist or strictly Laissez-Faire economic systems are more efficient and/or 'better' for 'society' (however you wish to define these ambiguous terms) but merely propagators of each system accept their respective deficiencies: unintended consequences are market stagnation in Interventionist Policies; and potential for inflation, corruption, and monopolies in Laissez-Faire.


In my eyes the differences between Socialism and Keynesian Economics are far more subtle than the differences between Capitalism and Keynesian Economics.
I believe that is because you are viewing them from a surface level perspective, so to speak; Keynes' economic postulate is a form of Capitalism but, simply not Laissez-Faire Capitalism. As I said the means and relations of production are still dictated by private entities, while the mode (the most important distinguishing feature of Socialism) is still Capitalist.
 
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Obama supports partial birth abortion, which is just disgusting to me...
Do you have any idea why post-viability abortions are performed? Do you know what viability itself implies? Are you aware why post-viability abortions are Constitutionally protected? And, finally, do you know why Obama - or any other politician, for that matter - supports post-viability abortions? (if you do not know the answer to the first question, you do not know this).
 
RobInKuwait

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I would disagree. I true Free Market is predicated upon absolute opportunity; of course, this applies to both corruption and benevolent economic behavior.Regulation is predicated upon controlled opportunity to avoid market saturation, corruption and so forth. History would most definitely disagree with your position - examples ranging from Rocka., Empire to Microsoft - though I may have confused your point.
Monopolies are not a negative in and of themselves. I assume you are talking about coersive monopolies, when you refer to monopolies. If that is the case then I most definitely disagree with you're interpretation of history:

Rockerfeller gave the consumer the cheapest prices imaginable by combining oil exploration, refining, delivery and service into one operation. His competitors often aimed to have their business bought out because he would hire them and give them increased income.

Even if he attempted to engage in "price gouging" which I take issue that he ever did, Standard Oil, energy in the early twentieth century was not a climate where one form of energy had a dominant market hold. Going under the *assumption* that Standard Oil was the only competitor in the market place....if Standard Oil overcharged for heating oil, people would use coal and wood. If Standard Oil overcharged for car oil, people would have used carriages. Keep in mind this is approximately 1890-1910 when Standard dominated the market.

Just like other anti-trust action in history, competitors worked through congress, greasing their wheels with plenty of cash in order to create the illusion of a Standard Oil coercive monopoly. Only the anti-industrial liberals of then and now and revisionist historians have given Standard Oil a bad name.

On the other hand, coercive monopolies in the United States do exist, and always because the one true monopoly, the government, who has a monopoly on the use of force in business dealings. Examples of this are in the railroad, like I mentioned before, telephone companies, electric companies and the Postal Service. There are hundreds of other examples available.

This is not to say that either Interventionist or strictly Laissez-Faire economic systems are more efficient and/or 'better' for 'society' (however you wish to define these ambiguous terms) but merely propagators of each system accept their respective deficiencies: unintended consequences are market stagnation in Interventionist Policies; and potential for inflation, corruption, and monopolies in Laissez-Faire.
I don't really understand you're saying there's the potential for corruption in a Laissez-Faire economy more than interventionist policies, especially in a democratic system. You have the potential for companies to pay off government officials....IF they are involved in the economy. If they are not, that potential is gone.

The monopoly thing I've gone over.

Inflation can occur no matter how much intervention happens. The problem with interventionilism is that you also have to deal with the law of unintended consequences, which one bad intervening program can bring down a market (Fannie/Freddie).

I realize your intent was not to debate the merits of Laissez Faire vs Keynsinnism, but I can't let my free market baby get bashed without a response :).

I believe that is because you are viewing them from a surface level perspective, so to speak; Keynes' economic postulate is a form of Capitalism but, simply not Laissez-Faire Capitalism. As I said the means and relations of production are still dictated by private entities, while the mode (the most important distinguishing feature of Socialism) is still Capitalist.
While I agree with you that some of the means and relations of production are still dictated by private entities, you certainly recognize that the flipside of that statement is that some of the means and relations of production are dictated by the government. Based upon that, I don't think its a stretch to say that Keynesinist Economics is a hybrid of Socialism and Capitalism.

Do you think its possible to have a gradual slide into a Socialist society? Or must it occur as a revolution as Marx envisioned?
 
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Monopolies are not a negative in and of themselves. I assume you are talking about coersive monopolies, when you refer to monopolies. If that is the case then I most definitely disagree with you're interpretation of history:

Rockerfeller gave the consumer the cheapest prices imaginable by combining oil exploration, refining, delivery and service into one operation. His competitors often aimed to have their business bought out because he would hire them and give them increased income.

Even if he attempted to engage in "price gouging" which I take issue that he ever did, Standard Oil, energy in the early twentieth century was not a climate where one form of energy had a dominant market hold. Going under the *assumption* that Standard Oil was the only competitor in the market place....if Standard Oil overcharged for heating oil, people would use coal and wood. If Standard Oil overcharged for car oil, people would have used carriages. Keep in mind this is approximately 1890-1910 when Standard dominated the market.

Just like other anti-trust action in history, competitors worked through congress, greasing their wheels with plenty of cash in order to create the illusion of a Standard Oil coercive monopoly. Only the anti-industrial liberals of then and now and revisionist historians have given Standard Oil a bad name.

On the other hand, coercive monopolies in the United States do exist, and always because the one true monopoly, the government, who has a monopoly on the use of force in business dealings. Examples of this are in the railroad, like I mentioned before, telephone companies, electric companies and the Postal Service. There are hundreds of other examples available.



I don't really understand you're saying there's the potential for corruption in a Laissez-Faire economy more than interventionist policies, especially in a democratic system. You have the potential for companies to pay off government officials....IF they are involved in the economy. If they are not, that potential is gone.

The monopoly thing I've gone over.

Inflation can occur no matter how much intervention happens. The problem with interventionilism is that you also have to deal with the law of unintended consequences, which one bad intervening program can bring down a market (Fannie/Freddie).

I realize your intent was not to debate the merits of Laissez Faire vs Keynsinnism, but I can't let my free market baby get bashed without a response :).



While I agree with you that some of the means and relations of production are still dictated by private entities, you certainly recognize that the flipside of that statement is that some of the means and relations of production are dictated by the government. Based upon that, I don't think its a stretch to say that Keynesinist Economics is a hybrid of Socialism and Capitalism.

Do you think its possible to have a gradual slide into a Socialist society? Or must it occur as a revolution as Marx envisioned?
These are fine points Rob, but both history and the original pundits of Laissez-Faire Capitalism (Smith, Ricardo and so on) would disagree with all that you have said!

Competition is the fundamental predication of all Free-Market Systems; hence the name 'Free Market' - i.e., to be given fair representation; to be free from all collusion, coercion and unfair competition; and to have the ability and the right to disperse products in all markets invariably. Rational Self-Interest in its initial application to Capitalism necessarily assumes that, in the interests of avoiding market saturation, companies will not utterly conglomerate; and, further, that the consumer is rational enough to avoid such conditions. Monopolies are the fundamental antithetical premise to Free Market Capitalism, so, I am unsure what you are insinuating here. These are more or less basic tenets of your baby!
 
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These are fine points Rob, but both history and the original pundits of Laissez-Faire Capitalism (Smith, Ricardo and so on) would disagree with all that you have said!
The key question is whose version of history. If you read North Korean or Venezulan history books, the US is the root of all evil. If you read liberal textbooks (almost every public high school one is) industry and greed are the root of all evil.

Competition is the fundamental predication of all Free-Market Systems; hence the name 'Free Market' - i.e., to be given fair representation; to be free from all collusion, coercion and unfair competition; and to have the ability and the right to disperse products in all markets invariably. Rational Self-Interest in its initial application to Capitalism necessarily assumes that, in the interests of avoiding market saturation, companies will not utterly conglomerate; and, further, that the consumer is rational enough to avoid such conditions.
Agreed.

Monopolies are the fundamental antithetical premise to Free Market Capitalism, so, I am unsure what you are insinuating here. These are more or less basic tenets of your baby!
I disagree. To understand why you have to make a distinction between a monopoly and a coercive monopoly.

A monopoly in a free market is what every company strives for. However, in order to maintain their monopoly, they must provide the cheapest and highest quality goods and services or lose out a portion of their market share. A monopoly therefore is not evil in and of itself, as it provides the consumer with the best product.

The critique of capitalism is typically a coercive monopoly. A coercive monopoly in theory uses their market share to stamp out competition and then price gouge consumers. I said that this coercive monopoly cannot exist without the government as there are other industries to compete with, even if one company owns an entire market.

My example of Standard Oil shows how even when one company owns an entire product's market, they still have to compete with other products in similar industries. The examples I used were gasoline, vs coal and wood. Today that could be extended to natural gas nuclear power, hydroelectric, solar and wind power.

Monopolies in a free market economy are a pinnacle that every company strives for, though they never can retain that status without consistently providing the best product at the cheapest price.
 
Mulletsoldier

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I disagree. To understand why you have to make a distinction between a monopoly and a coercive monopoly.

A monopoly in a free market is what every company strives for. However, in order to maintain their monopoly, they must provide the cheapest and highest quality goods and services or lose out a portion of their market share. A monopoly therefore is not evil in and of itself, as it provides the consumer with the best product.

The critique of capitalism is typically a coercive monopoly. A coercive monopoly in theory uses their market share to stamp out competition and then price gouge consumers. I said that this coercive monopoly cannot exist without the government as there are other industries to compete with, even if one company owns an entire market.

My example of Standard Oil shows how even when one company owns an entire product's market, they still have to compete with other products in similar industries. The examples I used were gasoline, vs coal and wood. Today that could be extended to natural gas nuclear power, hydroelectric, solar and wind power.

Monopolies in a free market economy are a pinnacle that every company strives for, though they never can retain that status without consistently providing the best product at the cheapest price.
Therein, you are assuming that aspirations equate to rationality, when, in fact, they do not; corporate entities do not always act rationally (see: The Irrationality of Rationality; George Ritzer's Elaboration of Weber). Simply because a certain entity may strive for something, does not mean that thing is aggregately beneficial for them, or the market as a whole.

Competition not conglomeration drives product quality, Rob. For examples, one need look no further than the current agricultural market of the United States, driven in large part by several massive Fast-Food conglomerates: Their almost complete dictation of primary-input food goods keep prices unnaturally low; this essentially prevents actual domestic farms from producing quality goods, while necessarily preventing other world-markets from competing in the Global Agricultural Trade. This type of saturation ensures there is no plausible cause for McDonald's and their ilk to produce higher quality goods; there is no - and for the foreseeable future will not be - any impetus for change.

Within your statements, you are also assuming that market control is directly equatable with quality and/or a sense of 'goodness' for the consumer. In our former example, such is necessarily not the case. One of the largest food monopolies on the planet produces food which significantly contributes to coronary heart disease, childhood obesity and disease; ensures that you and I are forced to pay more for non-conglomerated food goods such as free-range chicken and beef, and non-stock fish. All this has occurred through supporting McDonald's, who has, in turn, solidified a certain quid pro quo relationship with food producers and distributors. This has altered natural production cycles, and altered the American Diet. Is this "providing the consumer with the best product", as you stated? Unequivocally, it is not. People may act in rational self-interest, but this does not necessarily mean rational self-interest is beneficial.

Your fundamental flaw in your line of reasoning is the assumption that all Free-Market entities act in rational fashions; in fact, they do not. As Ritzer's work suggests, their rationality is so fervent that it becomes inefficient and irrational, and in a circular fashion exacerbates the perpetual crises of Capital production.

Finally, you have also assumed a very fatal mistake: That companies are uni-industrial - that is, each conglomerate (or possible monopoly) controls the market of merely one industry. As you and I both know, such is not the case. Brands rather than individual services dictate market behavior in modern mixed-market economics. This gives rise for the opportunity for, to use your example, Standard Oil to control Oil, Natural Gas, Coal, and Wood vis-a-vis mergers, satellite companies, and branch-out markets.

Capitalism is not Monopolies; in fact, the proper operation of a Laissez-Faire system necessitates a lack of Monopolies to drive good quality and, most importantly (and the one thing you left out) prices high! Unnaturally low prices are unfavorable to any economy!
 
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brotha, i'm out of politics. i was just curious as to why his numbers were higher in this poll than they are in my newspaper.
Partially because the polls are broken up and adjusted to match a theoretical distribution of voters based on registrations. On average, the split is roughly 39% dem, 33% republican 28% independent or some slide around like that. So their polling is structured that way, with that many respondents of each party.

The poll here has nothing enforcing any kind of statistical accuracy (although it is very questionable that the polls themselves are doing such either, as there is such a huge variation even in national polls).

This also is why McCain says he still believes he will win - he's been doing his own polling in the states that are critical using his own (and the GOPs) different modeling of voters that will actualy turn out and vote, not just registered voters. Reuters is the only one that has a poll like that, and one of the questions was "did you vote in the last election". For the people that did, while still distributed as above 39/33/28, Obama holds an under 2% lead which is well within the margin of error. Obama COULD get a large surge of first time voters, however historically this hasn't happened.
 
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Therein, you are assuming that aspirations equate to rationality, when, in fact, they do not; corporate entities do not always act rationally (see: The Irrationality of Rationality; George Ritzer's Elaboration of Weber). Simply because a certain entity may strive for something, does not mean that thing is aggregately beneficial for them, or the market as a whole.
I don't think monopolies are beneficial or harmful to a free market economy. Keep in mind, everything I say is going under a free market, laissez faire assumption, aka the markets natural state. Any presence of a mixed economy changes the very nature of the discussion.

Competition not conglomeration drives product quality, Rob. For examples, one need look no further than the current agricultural market of the United States, driven in large part by several massive Fast-Food conglomerates: Their almost complete dictation of primary-input food goods keep prices unnaturally low; this essentially prevents actual domestic farms from producing quality goods, while necessarily preventing other world-markets from competing in the Global Agricultural Trade. This type of saturation ensures there is no plausible cause for McDonald's and their ilk to produce higher quality goods; there is no - and for the foreseeable future will not be - any impetus for change.
I'm not overly familiar with the food market of the United States, but one thing I can tell you is that it is anything but a free market. Beginning with the Agricultural Adjustment Act of 1933, Federal Government has taken an active role in the food market and its distribution as well as paying subsidies to farmers to NOT produce food. This has continued until present day.

In addition, in 2005 government mandated ethanol be produced by corn at the rate of 4.5 billion gallons a year, which will gradually increase until its produced at 7 billion gallons a year in 2012.

The food market is not a free market.

Within your statements, you are also assuming that market control is directly equatable with quality and/or a sense of 'goodness' for the consumer. In our former example, such is necessarily not the case. One of the largest food monopolies on the planet produces food which significantly contributes to coronary heart disease, childhood obesity and disease; ensures that you and I are forced to pay more for non-conglomerated food goods such as free-range chicken and beef, and non-stock fish. All this has occurred through supporting McDonald's, who has, in turn, solidified a certain quid pro quo relationship with food producers and distributors. This has altered natural production cycles, and altered the American Diet. Is this "providing the consumer with the best product", as you stated? Unequivocally, it is not. People may act in rational self-interest, but this does not necessarily mean rational self-interest is beneficial.
Obviously, what is good for a consumer price wise may not be in a consumer's best interest. I'll most readily concede that point. However, it does provide the consumer with the product that supply and demand dictates they want. People want fast food now. People want a prepackaged meal that is only the same and takes a couple of minutes to have in your hand. Its not healthy for them, but its what they want.

Your fundamental flaw in your line of reasoning is the assumption that all Free-Market entities act in rational fashions; in fact, they do not. As Ritzer's work suggests, their rationality is so fervent that it becomes inefficient and irrational, and in a circular fashion exacerbates the perpetual crises of Capital production.
You are correct, just as people do not always behave rationally, companies do not always behave rationally. However, just as the most rational people often excel in business and life, the most rational companies will often excel in the free market.

I don't follow Ritzer's critique of rationality. It doesn't make sense to me. He wasn't in wiki either. It sounds to me like he is similar to the philosophers that critique reason and rationality....I hate those guys :).

Finally, you have also assumed a very fatal mistake: That companies are uni-industrial - that is, each conglomerate (or possible monopoly) controls the market of merely one industry. As you and I both know, such is not the case. Brands rather than individual services dictate market behavior in modern mixed-market economics. This gives rise for the opportunity for, to use your example, Standard Oil to control Oil, Natural Gas, Coal, and Wood vis-a-vis mergers, satellite companies, and branch-out markets.
Its not a fatal mistake.

Monopolies do not preclude competition nor are they a static state in a free market economy.

If Ford took over the entire automobile industry and began gouging, Boeing and GE would branch out and enter the market. The nature of capitalism is that if there is an opening or a niche in a market, that an individual or collection of individuals with ambition will find it. In capitalism, the very nature of the market forces company to the extent that they have to be forward thinking and ambitious or risk losing market share. If they want to attempt malicious acts on the market, they're giving a competitor an advantage they cannot afford to secede.

Capitalism is not Monopolies; in fact, the proper operation of a Laissez-Faire system necessitates a lack of Monopolies to drive good quality and, most importantly (and the one thing you left out) prices high! Unnaturally low prices are unfavorable to any economy!
You're right, Capitalism, is not by its nature purely monopolies, but there can be monopolies in capitalism without undermining the system.

As for the high prices, I'll repeat the same line as above:

If an individual or company wants to attempt malicious acts on the market, they're giving a competitor an advantage they cannot afford to secede. Monopolies only last as long as no one else enters the marketplace. Markets are not static states nor should they be treated as such.


By the way, great points....you never fail to make me think.
 
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Do you have any idea why post-viability abortions are performed? Do you know what viability itself implies? Are you aware why post-viability abortions are Constitutionally protected? And, finally, do you know why Obama - or any other politician, for that matter - supports post-viability abortions? (if you do not know the answer to the first question, you do not know this).
Obama's main argument for partial birth abortion is the health of the mother, but it has been said by many doctors that if the baby can be pulled feet first enough for scissors to entered into the babies cranium, the mother's health would not worsen by finishing the birthing process.
 
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I don't think monopolies are beneficial or harmful to a free market economy. Keep in mind, everything I say is going under a free market, laissez faire assumption, aka the markets natural state. Any presence of a mixed economy changes the very nature of the discussion.
Unfortunately, though, such a thing is a logical abstraction and does not equate with reality. All my comments are geared towards reality!

I'm not overly familiar with the food market of the United States, but one thing I can tell you is that it is anything but a free market. Beginning with the Agricultural Adjustment Act of 1933, Federal Government has taken an active role in the food market and its distribution as well as paying subsidies to farmers to NOT produce food. This has continued until present day.

In addition, in 2005 government mandated ethanol be produced by corn at the rate of 4.5 billion gallons a year, which will gradually increase until its produced at 7 billion gallons a year in 2012.

The food market is not a free market.
Exactly my point! Such a horrid outcome has manifested itself in spite of governmental regulations. Do you honestly feel this situation would be better (i.e., higher quality goods) if the Government were not intervening? Do you also know that Tyson Foods - one of the largest food distribution networks and key supplier to McDonald's - was found guilty of not cleaning their slaughtering devices? Also, they were found guilty of keeping their warehouses at unusually low temperatures to avoid manual clean-up labour! In a Free Market this situation has the potential to be vastly exacerbated.

In my estimation, I would suggest you do some key reading on the Globalization of Agriculture and Primary-Input Goods. It underlays the process of Globalization as a whole, and is a perfect picture of Globalization as a whole.

Obviously, what is good for a consumer price wise may not be in a consumer's best interest. I'll most readily concede that point. However, it does provide the consumer with the product that supply and demand dictates they want. People want fast food now. People want a prepackaged meal that is only the same and takes a couple of minutes to have in your hand. Its not healthy for them, but its what they want.
So, Rob, what if all Government regulations cease, and McDonald's is allowed to dictate the food-chain further? This would be a Free Market, but is that beneficial? Your answer will be inexorably linked with what you feel the purpose of an economy is.

You are correct, just as people do not always behave rationally, companies do not always behave rationally. However, just as the most rational people often excel in business and life, the most rational companies will often excel in the free market.
Rationality implies purposeful behaviour; purposeful behavior does not always necessarily lead to success; therefore, rational behavior does not always lead to success. Simply, timing plays as big, or bigger role, in successful businesses than does rationality. I would colloquially call timing, "luck".

I don't follow Ritzer's critique of rationality. It doesn't make sense to me. He wasn't in wiki either. It sounds to me like he is similar to the philosophers that critique reason and rationality....I hate those guys :)
.

The McDonaldization of Society

This is a decent summation.


Its not a fatal mistake.

Monopolies do not preclude competition nor are they a static state in a free market economy.

If Ford took over the entire automobile industry and began gouging, Boeing and GE would branch out and enter the market. The nature of capitalism is that if there is an opening or a niche in a market, that an individual or collection of individuals with ambition will find it. In capitalism, the very nature of the market forces company to the extent that they have to be forward thinking and ambitious or risk losing market share. If they want to attempt malicious acts on the market, they're giving a competitor an advantage they cannot afford to secede.
Aggregately they are not in a static-state, but they can temporarily stagnate the market which, in your favorite terms, can have long-lasting unintended consequences. I feel you are missing a key postulate here: Unusually low prices, for sustained periods of time, can have aggregately depressive effects on the economy! (I will let you hash out why).


You're right, Capitalism, is not by its nature purely monopolies, but there can be monopolies in capitalism without undermining the system.

As for the high prices, I'll repeat the same line as above:

If an individual or company wants to attempt malicious acts on the market, they're giving a competitor an advantage they cannot afford to secede. Monopolies only last as long as no one else enters the marketplace. Markets are not static states nor should they be treated as such.


By the way, great points....you never fail to make me think.
See above and gracias!
 
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Obama's main argument for partial birth abortion is the health of the mother, but it has been said by many doctors that if the baby can be pulled feet first enough for scissors to entered into the babies cranium, the mother's health would not worsen by finishing the birthing process.
It depends on whom you listening to, in simplest terms. Further, post-viable is a debatable chronology. The baby is terminated because viability is such a broad, encompassing term; after partial-abortion, the baby has a very low probability of survival. Viable simply means that it may viably survive in the immediate post-operative sense.

Further, worsening the mother's health is not the concern. Post-Viability abortions are only performed in cases where the mother's life is in critical danger (whether immediately or post-birth). The fact the baby is terminated is an unfortunate reality, and due to the reasons above. Partial-abortions are a disturbing reality, but such is life.

Whose to say who deserves life more: The baby, or the mother?
 
EasyEJL

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It depends on whom you listening to, in simplest terms. Further, post-viable is a debatable chronology. The baby is terminated because viability is such a broad, encompassing term; after partial-abortion, the baby has a very low probability of survival. Viable simply means that it may viably survive in the immediate post-operative sense.

Further, worsening the mother's health is not the concern. Post-Viability abortions are only performed in cases where the mother's life is in critical danger (whether immediately or post-birth). The fact the baby is terminated is an unfortunate reality, and due to the reasons above. Partial-abortions are a disturbing reality, but such is life.

Whose to say who deserves life more: The baby, or the mother?
I think the issue is the definition of the "health" of the mother vs "risk of loss of life" of the mother. Virtually every womans health is at risk during pregnancy, the case can be made that the weight gain alone is a health risk. However if the baby has reached a point where it can survive without an incubator, I can't think of any reason to allow an abortion rather than a cesarean delivery and put the child up for adoption. If the definition used in the partial birth abortions only called for it when the mothers life was at imminent risk I think most prolifers would be ok with it.
 
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It depends on whom you listening to, in simplest terms. Further, post-viable is a debatable chronology. The baby is terminated because viability is such a broad, encompassing term; after partial-abortion, the baby has a very low probability of survival. Viable simply means that it may viably survive in the immediate post-operative sense.

Further, worsening the mother's health is not the concern. Post-Viability abortions are only performed in cases where the mother's life is in critical danger (whether immediately or post-birth). The fact the baby is terminated is an unfortunate reality, and due to the reasons above. Partial-abortions are a disturbing reality, but such is life.

Whose to say who deserves life more: The baby, or the mother?
So lets just kill the baby because viability is too broad, just to make sure?
 
RobInKuwait

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Unfortunately, though, such a thing is a logical abstraction and does not equate with reality. All my comments are geared towards reality!
By that line of reasoning, the United States would never declared its independence! Logical abstraction is the foundation for any new system of government or economics. Would Karl Marx's theories ever exist with logical abstraction.

You have to look at the state of nature of the economy in a peaceful society, which is the free market. From there you can add government intervention. How can government intervention be the baseline or state of nature for an economy? Thats counterintuitive. Government intervention is built on the idea that they can perfect the economic models by timely interference.

Exactly my point! Such a horrid outcome has manifested itself in spite of governmental regulations. Do you honestly feel this situation would be better (i.e., higher quality goods) if the Government were not intervening?
Yes, I do. In a mature free market, a company's integrity and reputation is paramount. Who's to say that a watchdog company who's sole purpose is to inspect quality standards, such as a consumer reports type entity would not exist if the government did not regulate goods.

Government regulations consistently fail. Tyson, Enron, Vioxx are examples of government not regulating though they have taken that role. Who holds government responsible for their regulatory failures? Nobody, government is never held responsible for their failures. If they were they would be fired centuries ago.

On the other hand if a private company fails, they lose credibility and ultimately another company takes their market share. Competition is a positive even in regulation.

Do you also know that Tyson Foods - one of the largest food distribution networks and key supplier to McDonald's - was found guilty of not cleaning their slaughtering devices? Also, they were found guilty of keeping their warehouses at unusually low temperatures to avoid manual clean-up labour! In a Free Market this situation has the potential to be vastly exacerbated.
I disagree that the situation would be exacerbated in the least. When there is government regulation, it is a cat and mouse game that often leads to bribery and other misdeeds. Without government regulation, the company's integrity leads to consumer trust. Once they lose that they lose the consumer. With government regulating, people have the faulty assumption that government will do its job, which it is notoriously bad at.

In my estimation, I would suggest you do some key reading on the Globalization of Agriculture and Primary-Input Goods. It underlays the process of Globalization as a whole, and is a perfect picture of Globalization as a whole.
I'd love to!

So, Rob, what if all Government regulations cease, and McDonald's is allowed to dictate the food-chain further?
McDonald's can try to do that, but consumers dictate the food chain. To deny that is risking your livelihood.

This would be a Free Market, but is that beneficial? Your answer will be inexorably linked with what you feel the purpose of an economy is.
To me, asking what the purpose of the economy is, is like asking, "what is the meaning of life?" The economy should exist for its own sake, just as living should be the meaning of life.

Rationality implies purposeful behaviour; purposeful behavior does not always necessarily lead to success; therefore, rational behavior does not always lead to success. Simply, timing plays as big, or bigger role, in successful businesses than does rationality. I would colloquially call timing, "luck".
You can call successful businesses and successful people lucky, or you can call them people who were bold and intelligent enough to take and make opportunities. Its semantics. Its funny though, some people are a hell of a lot more skilled at being lucky.


The McDonaldization of Society

This is a decent summation.


Its not a fatal mistake.
Interesting. I think you may be making an error attributing the phenomenon to capitalism. It stinks of blaming the economy on "8 years of Bush's failed economic policy". Makes sense at first glance but not when you look at what actually started the process.

Aggregately they are not in a static-state, but they can temporarily stagnate the market which, in your favorite terms, can have long-lasting unintended consequences.
I disagree with your use of the phrase unintended consequences. In a true free market, there is no external influence trying to manipulate the market...i.e. no intentions, so there can't be unintended consequences, just cause and effect.

I feel you are missing a key postulate here: Unusually low prices, for sustained periods of time, can have aggregately depressive effects on the economy! (I will let you hash out why).
So if oil was cheap for a long period of time, would depress the economy?

I give up, how would that depress the economy?
 
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By that line of reasoning, the United States would never declared its independence! Logical abstraction is the foundation for any new system of government or economics. Would Karl Marx's theories ever exist with logical abstraction.
In fact, it is quite the opposite. Marx, for example, specifically geared his work to a strict economism because the apathy of logical systems. Any governmental system is necessarily alogical - that is to say, they are developed pragmatically, in manners that reflect real-world events at certain, specific socio-historical periods; it is only through this lack of logical abstractions that one's theory may concretely affect the environment around them. In this respect, I think you may have understood my comments as towards logical abstractions.

You have to look at the state of nature of the economy in a peaceful society, which is the free market. From there you can add government intervention. How can government intervention be the baseline or state of nature for an economy? Thats counterintuitive. Government intervention is built on the idea that they can perfect the economic models by timely interference.
Ah, but I never implied that Governmental Intervention should be the foundation of any economic system - such is not even the manner in which Marx's Socialism would ideally operate. I merely suggested Government intervention is a necessary component for fair competition, and, primarily, the safety of the citizens which are contained within that environment.


Yes, I do. In a mature free market, a company's integrity and reputation is paramount. Who's to say that a watchdog company who's sole purpose is to inspect quality standards, such as a consumer reports type entity would not exist if the government did not regulate goods.
Come now Rob, surely you do not believe this. For a moment, cast aside your partisanship and consider this pragmatically and objectively. I am not suggesting you embrace Socialism, but to insinuate that a company who - in the face of health regulations - consistently produces detrimental, low quality goods, would be more beneficial in a Free Market is a dissonant statement; dissonant with reality, in fact.

Further, where does your line of reasoning stem from - that is, why does McDonald's not strive to (say) produce healthier and higher quality products in the face of Government Interventions? What prevents them from doing so? Nothing, in fact; and, corollary to this, why would you assume that an unregulated food market would produce higher goods?

It would seem, in this case, you are committing a logical fallacy known as 'Denying the Antecedent' without properly understanding its implications. To explain this point, consider the logic of a Conditional or, an "if then" statement. In this case, my premise is that if Government Intervenes at a certain point, then companies are forced to meet certain standards. If the antecedent is false (Governments do not intervene) than the consequence is false (standards are not kept high). Now, denying the Antecedent is simply an invalid argumentative method without properly delineating your alternative consequence. As of yet, you have failed to do so.

Government regulations consistently fail. Tyson, Enron, Vioxx are examples of government not regulating though they have taken that role. Who holds government responsible for their regulatory failures? Nobody, government is never held responsible for their failures. If they were they would be fired centuries ago.

On the other hand if a private company fails, they lose credibility and ultimately another company takes their market share. Competition is a positive even in regulation.
I see your reasoning, but it is unfortunately incomplete. Herein, you have assumed that upon the failing of Company X, a new company, Company Y will absolve its place in the market, avoiding the mistakes which failed the competitor. This, unfortunately, is not the case. As well, your last sentence succinctly disproved your entire commentary on Monopolies!

I disagree that the situation would be exacerbated in the least. When there is government regulation, it is a cat and mouse game that often leads to bribery and other misdeeds. Without government regulation, the company's integrity leads to consumer trust. Once they lose that they lose the consumer. With government regulating, people have the faulty assumption that government will do its job, which it is notoriously bad at.
Once again Rob, I fail to believe that this is your position. It is so divergent from even common sense (this is not an insult) that it is hard for me to digest. Obviously, these misdeeds are carried out shielded from Public Opinion. Tyson Foods, Enron and so forth do not publish these actions for that exact reason. It would seem you are insinuating a certain transparency in respects to elite-level fiscal dealings when, as reality and history suggest to us, is not the case. It is only after a company commits such acts that they lose credibility; however, even then, such might not occur: In the Tyson Foods example (unwittingly, you most likely consume their food product) they requested, and were granted, a suppression order so this information never reached the widespread media.

So, in your line of reasoning, and knowing the secrecy behind most large conglomerates, how is it you assume these situations improve in the face of no regulation whatsoever? At least in this case, the fear of reprimand provides a certain impetus for adhering to public health standards; without regulation there is no standards. As well, you are assuming the modern-consumer is motivated, informed, and passionate enough to induce real, effectual change in the economic environment. Such deliberate behavior is an overestimation of the modern consumer. So, herein, I feel, you have made two mistakes:

a) Assuming knowledge such that would reveal fraudulent actions is readily available at any time to avoid detriment and;
b) That most consumers are motivated to find it.

Both are, unfortunately, untrue.

McDonald's can try to do that, but consumers dictate the food chain. To deny that is risking your livelihood.
You feel this to be a true statement? Are you aware that McDonald's causally effects which agricultural products you may be at which prices? I am afraid, Rob, such is the danger of monopolies. Unfortunately, you dictate very little of what you eat. For example, McDonald's consumes 1/4 - yes 25% - of U.S., Domestic Potatoe production; fluctuations in their supply and demand intricately affect what YOU pay at the grocery store. As chilling as a reality as that may be, you do not dictate the food chain in any major way; as chilling as it may be, your tenets of the Free Market fail miserably in the face of reality. As I suggested earlier, I think investigation the Globalization of the Agricultural Market will be an illuminating experience for you!

To me, asking what the purpose of the economy is, is like asking, "what is the meaning of life?" The economy should exist for its own sake, just as living should be the meaning of life.
Ah, as Steven Colbert would comically say, you are in the group of individuals who view the Economy quite like Christian Science; yet, merely, that Capital is in the place of God. Unfortunately, there is purpose to everything, Rob. You may be missing it here, though!

Interesting. I think you may be making an error attributing the phenomenon to capitalism. It stinks of blaming the economy on "8 years of Bush's failed economic policy". Makes sense at first glance but not when you look at what actually started the process.
No, no error. From first glance, you misinterpreted both the purpose of the link, and its contents. No blame being placed, merely expounding that rationality taken to a certain point becomes irrational: The constant mechanization and compartmentalization of labour becomes irrational and counterproductive. It would seem, unfortunately, that you are separating - as you did above with the Christian Science Economy equating - the humanistic element from the Economy.

I disagree with your use of the phrase unintended consequences. In a true free market, there is no external influence trying to manipulate the market...i.e. no intentions, so there can't be unintended consequences, just cause and effect.
No, the Free Market is necessarily equipped with intentions, or no corporate entities would exist. These intentions can have vastly reverberating unintended consequences. This, once again, is reiterated by history: One need look no further than the Internet-driven Market Downturn of the early 2000's.

I give up, how would that depress the economy?
Goods need to be of a certain value in order to dictate the intricate relationship between goods and wages. Wages are merely arbitrary without good prices - i.e., Real Wages are relative and proportionate to the cost of living. If prices are unnaturally low due to monopolization, moneys lose their value through artificial inflation. I thought that was basic economics? :)
 
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In fact, it is quite the opposite. Marx, for example, specifically geared his work to a strict economism because the apathy of logical systems. Any governmental system is necessarily alogical - that is to say, they are developed pragmatically, in manners that reflect real-world events at certain, specific socio-historical periods; it is only through this lack of logical abstractions that one's theory may concretely affect the environment around them. In this respect, I think you may have understood my comments as towards logical abstractions.
I'm lost on the entire term of logical abstraction. I assumed by logical abstraction you meant a theoretical model.

Ah, but I never implied that Governmental Intervention should be the foundation of any economic system - such is not even the manner in which Marx's Socialism would ideally operate. I merely suggested Government intervention is a necessary component for fair competition, and, primarily, the safety of the citizens which are contained within that environment.
Actually you did! Look at the exchange below. I said that a laissez faire market with no government intervention should be the basis of our conversation. You said it didn't exist and your comments were geared to reality, implying that government intervention was the baseline. The conversation is below:

I don't think monopolies are beneficial was or harmful to a free market economy. Keep in mind, everything I say is going under a free market, laissez faire assumption, aka the markets natural state. Any presence of a mixed economy changes the very nature of the discussion.
Unfortunately, though, such a thing is a logical abstraction and does not equate with reality. All my comments are geared towards reality!

Come now Rob, surely you do not believe this. For a moment, cast aside your partisanship and consider this pragmatically and objectively.
Theres no partisanship involved here. I became a Republican well after I adopted these beliefs and understandings. I was registered as a libertarian for 8 years. I joined the Republican party not because I particularly believe in the party, but because I am so adamantly against the platform of the Democratic party. I truly believe they are a scourge to our nation and represent the worst our country has to offer.

I am not suggesting you embrace Socialism, but to insinuate that a company who - in the face of health regulations - consistently produces detrimental, low quality goods, would be more beneficial in a Free Market is a dissonant statement; dissonant with reality, in fact.
Not so. Compare it to the nanny state idea. When individuals get handouts they lose motivation and personal responsibility. There's no reason that same ideal can't apply to businesses.

Yes, I'll admit, people could die from a company's faulty product. It sucks. However, theres no better way to develop an educated consumer than to make it so their life depends on it! :)

Further, where does your line of reasoning stem from - that is, why does McDonald's not strive to (say) produce healthier and higher quality products in the face of Government Interventions? What prevents them from doing so? Nothing, in fact; and, corollary to this, why would you assume that an unregulated food market would produce higher goods?
Because government is incompetent and can't regulate effectively. If its on the business to not kill the customers(which believe it or not is a bad business model) they won't, or customers will go elsewhere.
It would seem, in this case, you are committing a logical fallacy known as 'Denying the Antecedent' without properly understanding its implications. To explain this point, consider the logic of a Conditional or, an "if then" statement. In this case, my premise is that if Government Intervenes at a certain point, then companies are forced to meet certain standards. If the antecedent is false (Governments do not intervene) than the consequence is false (standards are not kept high). Now, denying the Antecedent is simply an invalid argumentative method without properly delineating your alternative consequence. As of yet, you have failed to do so.
Actually, if we're saying the free market is the natural state of the economy, the person arguing intervention should be forced to justify his position.

I'd compare it to the Atheist being forced to argue against the existence of god. Theres nothing to substantiate that god exists so the burden of proof doesn't fall on the Atheist.

My position is that ALL government interference in the free market has failed on some level, so why bother trying to improve on what was never broken?

I see your reasoning, but it is unfortunately incomplete. Herein, you have assumed that upon the failing of Company X, a new company, Company Y will absolve its place in the market, avoiding the mistakes which failed the competitor. This, unfortunately, is not the case.
Why not?

As well, your last sentence succinctly disproved your entire commentary on Monopolies!
No it doesn't. You're taking my arguments out of context. Every company in the market competes against every other company. If there is an opening, a company will find it and take it.

Monopolies go under the assumption that each industry is independent from all other industries. It doesn't take into account that me driving to visit relatives is competing with me flying a commercial flight. If the flight costs too much, I drive.

Once again Rob, I fail to believe that this is your position. It is so divergent from even common sense (this is not an insult) that it is hard for me to digest. Obviously, these misdeeds are carried out shielded from Public Opinion. Tyson Foods, Enron and so forth do not publish these actions for that exact reason. It would seem you are insinuating a certain transparency in respects to elite-level fiscal dealings when, as reality and history suggest to us, is not the case. It is only after a company commits such acts that they lose credibility; however, even then, such might not occur: In the Tyson Foods example (unwittingly, you most likely consume their food product) they requested, and were granted, a suppression order so this information never reached the widespread media.
What you're not factoring in, is that in a free market, with vigilant consumers and stiff competition, wouldn't the transparent company be the one you want to spend your hard earned money on? Its certainly a selling point to me when you open your chicken farm to the public and let me inspect how you make my food for myself.

So, in your line of reasoning, and knowing the secrecy behind most large conglomerates, how is it you assume these situations improve in the face of no regulation whatsoever?
Yes. Again, you're not factoring in that regulation is already in place. Think about it. Knowing that you have a regulatory agency watching your every move, would that encourage transparency in your operations?

At least in this case, the fear of reprimand provides a certain impetus for adhering to public health standards; without regulation there is no standards.
So you're saying that every company is inherently motivated to cut costs at the detriment to the consumer? Wouldn't you say that harming your customer base is bad?

A good example in a microcosm is a supplement company. Yes, theres muscletechs out there selling bunk, but most likely missing out on the long term business, but theres also the USPs and Designer Supplements of the world, honestly trying to bring a high quality product to the consumer and making money in the process. They know if their products didn't work, they'd lose their repeat customers.

As well, you are assuming the modern-consumer is motivated, informed, and passionate enough to induce real, effectual change in the economic environment. Such deliberate behavior is an overestimation of the modern consumer.
Do you blame this on a capitalist model or a model of government intervention? I certainly blame it on the latter.

So, herein, I feel, you have made two mistakes:

a) Assuming knowledge such that would reveal fraudulent actions is readily available at any time to avoid detriment and;
b) That most consumers are motivated to find it.

Both are, unfortunately, untrue.
I disagree for the reasons above.


You feel this to be a true statement? Are you aware that McDonald's causally effects which agricultural products you may be at which prices? I am afraid, Rob, such is the danger of monopolies. Unfortunately, you dictate very little of what you eat. For example, McDonald's consumes 1/4 - yes 25% - of U.S., Domestic Potatoe production; fluctuations in their supply and demand intricately affect what YOU pay at the grocery store.
Don't you think that the fact that McDonald's pays millions in lobbying fees to a government who regulates farming may have *something* to do with this?

We're really talking chicken and eggs here.

Also, *if* McDonalds was a monopoly, wouldn't the fact that the government is there to do their bidding for campaign contributions have the effect of further emboldening this monopoly? This was the primary cause of the "Robber Barons" of the 1890s.

As chilling as a reality as that may be, you do not dictate the food chain in any major way; as chilling as it may be, your tenets of the Free Market fail miserably in the face of reality. As I suggested earlier, I think investigation the Globalization of the Agricultural Market will be an illuminating experience for you!
The potential corruption in a system with government intervention dwarfs any free market corruption scheme.

Ah, as Steven Colbert would comically say, you are in the group of individuals who view the Economy quite like Christian Science; yet, merely, that Capital is in the place of God. Unfortunately, there is purpose to everything, Rob. You may be missing it here, though!
I disagree. I understand that most people believe in government regulation. I don't. I think it is a tool for corruption and ceding individual liberties. I can quantify why I believe everything I believe about the free market and explain those beliefs in an understandable manner. Thats alone should dissipate any notions that I have a "faith-like" belief in the free market.


No, no error. From first glance, you misinterpreted both the purpose of the link, and its contents. No blame being placed, merely expounding that rationality taken to a certain point becomes irrational: The constant mechanization and compartmentalization of labour becomes irrational and counterproductive. It would seem, unfortunately, that you are separating - as you did above with the Christian Science Economy equating - the humanistic element from the Economy.
Word. I'm lost on this. :ntome:

No, the Free Market is necessarily equipped with intentions, or no corporate entities would exist. These intentions can have vastly reverberating unintended consequences. This, once again, is reiterated by history: One need look no further than the Internet-driven Market Downturn of the early 2000's.
I don't buy this. Think of it like an ant farm, yes an ant can make a tunnel collapse, but the only way you can screw up the whole farm is for an outsider to shake it up.

Goods need to be of a certain value in order to dictate the intricate relationship between goods and wages. Wages are merely arbitrary without good prices - i.e., Real Wages are relative and proportionate to the cost of living. If prices are unnaturally low due to monopolization, moneys lose their value through artificial inflation.
Again, this is hinging on the theory that a monopoly in an industry is independent from the rest of the market. If you acknowledge that even a company who has a "monopoly" is still competing with
other industries the entire theory fall like a house of cards.

I thought that was basic economics? :)
Never took it! I was a history major! Is it that obvious! :rofl:
 
Mulletsoldier

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This caveat applies for your entire line of responses: While your responses are logically valid within their own parameters, they do not equate with the classical uses of the terminology we are utilizing, or a classical understanding of the concepts those words connote. I think it wise to take a few steps back and mutually define these terms as either; a) you are misusing some of them or; b) I am misunderstanding your uses!

For example, to abstract something logically is to remove it from its basis in a material reality, and make for it a completely theoretical replacement. In this respect, Marx's works are not logical abstractions, as they deal with specific socio-historical phenomenon, in certain socio-historical periods of development occurring in the material world - i.e., a material conception and solution to reality. The Pure Free Market - especially as you have used it: separated from its composition by human agents - is an abstraction because it does not and cannot exist (some would say, never would) - it is a hypothetical ideal, and therefore is nothing but a mere abstraction.

Actually you did! Look at the exchange below. I said that a laissez faire market with no government intervention should be the basis of our conversation. You said it didn't exist and your comments were geared to reality, implying that government intervention was the baseline. The conversation is below:
Again, possibly some definitions are necessary to clear up some of the muddled confusion.

in⋅ter⋅ven⋅tion [in-ter-ven-shuhn]
–noun
1.the act or fact of intervening.
2.interposition or interference of one state in the affairs of another.

n⋅ter⋅ven⋅tion⋅ism [in-ter-ven-shuh-niz-uhm]
–noun
the policy or doctrine of intervening, esp. government interference in the affairs of another state or in domestic economic affairs.

Intervention necessarily implies momentary involvement, as there must be a foundation within which to intercede. Therefore, I said that Government intervention is necessary, but not the fundamental basis of an Interventionist Economy. This is where I feel you have made an unwarranted leap of semantics and logic; both in respects to previous replies and the discussion at hand. To intervene implies to act momentarily, to intercede into the basis of an economy - i.e., a Capitally driven economy.

Theres no partisanship involved here. I became a Republican well after I adopted these beliefs and understandings. I was registered as a libertarian for 8 years. I joined the Republican party not because I particularly believe in the party, but because I am so adamantly against the platform of the Democratic party. I truly believe they are a scourge to our nation and represent the worst our country has to offer.
par⋅ti⋅san [pahr-tuh-zuhn, -suhn; Brit. pahr-tuh-zan]
–noun
1. an adherent or supporter of a person, group, party, or cause, esp. a person who shows a biased, emotional allegiance.
2. Military. a member of a party of light or irregular troops engaged in harassing an enemy, esp. a member of a guerrilla band engaged in fighting or sabotage against an occupying army.
–adjective
3. of, pertaining to, or characteristic of partisans; partial to a specific party, person, etc.: partisan politics.
4. of, pertaining to, or carried on by military partisans or guerrillas.

Political Partisanship is merely one form of Partisanship. The word itself merely implies the first distinction: Adherently supporting a person, group, or ideal with biased emotional allegiance. I told you to cast this partisanship aside, as it is obviously tilting your judgment.

Not so. Compare it to the nanny state idea. When individuals get handouts they lose motivation and personal responsibility. There's no reason that same ideal can't apply to businesses.
Most definitely so! Here is an example for you:

You are driving along a sparsely populated road when you come to a stop light. There are no other cars within view whatsoever, what do you do? Most likely, you go through it unabated.

Now, applying this same logic, how is it you feel companies would spontaneously adhere to stringent, non-existent health-regulations? Those corporate entities (such as Tyson and McDonald's) who deliberately ignore regulations do so for the purpose of cutting costs and maximizing profits - to, as you have said, achieve the goal of market domination. When one removes all regulations whatsoever, I fail to see how you believe these companies would cease such activities in light of an altruistic approach! In fact, I would posit the exact opposite, that if no regulations were present, the vast majority of companies would supersede morality in the favor of profit maximization (an act of Irrational Rationality); just as most individuals would run the red light.

Yes, I'll admit, people could die from a company's faulty product. It sucks. However, theres no better way to develop an educated consumer than to make it so their life depends on it!
Again, this assumes a transparency of information which barely exists now, and surely would not exist in a Free Market. So we are clear, a Free Market denotes a complete lack of governmental regulation; both in respects to health and fiscal policy. So (say) Company X is making a product that may kill people ten years from now, would they reveal that? If you apply your own logic, they of course will not! This destroy their credibility and sales. Again, logical determinations come into play here: You posit the corporate entity as a thing wishing to maximize its profits as the primary goal even in a regulated market, but then, contradictorily, assume the cessation of this goal in an unregulated market? How so?

Because government is incompetent and can't regulate effectively. If its on the business to not kill the customers(which believe it or not is a bad business model) they won't, or customers will go elsewhere.
Once again, you are denying the antecedent which is a logical fallacy. Your reasoning is incomplete, and you have merely denied my initial antecedent (Government Intervention) without replacing it with a plausible replacement. You have not yet answered this question:

Why, if McDonald's does produce food now which kills its consumer base, would it produce healthier food in a unregulated market?

Simply, it would not. There is no motivation to change, and no guidelines to adhere to. They kill their consumer base now (which, believe it or not, is their business model), so why would things alter?

Actually, if we're saying the free market is the natural state of the economy, the person arguing intervention should be forced to justify his position.

I'd compare it to the Atheist being forced to argue against the existence of god. Theres nothing to substantiate that god exists so the burden of proof doesn't fall on the Atheist.
Again, a misunderstanding afoot, so let me clarify what 'Denying the Antecedent' means:

Denying the antecedent, sometimes also called Inverse error, is a formal fallacy, committed by reasoning in the form:

If P, then Q.
Not P.
Therefore, not Q.

Arguments of this form are invalid (except in the rare cases where such an argument also instantiates some other, valid, form).

Informally, this means that arguments of this form do not give good reason to establish their conclusions, even if their premises are true.
The name denying the antecedent derives from the premise "not P", which denies the "if" clause of the conditional premise. One way to demonstrate the invalidity of this argument form is with a counterexample with true premises but an obviously false conclusion.

For example:

If Queen Elizabeth is an American citizen, then she is a human being.
Queen Elizabeth is not an American citizen.
Therefore, Queen Elizabeth is not a human being.
Essentially you are positing if there is Governmental Regulation (p), then there will be Market Failures (q). Following, you are attempting to say if there is no Governmental Regulation (~p) then there will be no Market Failure (~q). Why is this logically invalid? Because there are a myriad of other situations within the which the market can and does fail, aside from Governmental Regulations. In this sense, it is not like your counterexample whatsoever. So, I say again, you have replaced my antecedent without a plausible explanation, and therefore (objectively and formally) your logic is invalid.

You are a history major, so this should be short task for you! Why does the Market keep repeating the same perpetual failures?

No it doesn't. You're taking my arguments out of context. Every company in the market competes against every other company. If there is an opening, a company will find it and take it.

Monopolies go under the assumption that each industry is independent from all other industries. It doesn't take into account that me driving to visit relatives is competing with me flying a commercial flight. If the flight costs too much, I drive
.

Rob, I think you have a very fundamental and basic misinterpretation of what Monopoly denotes; both in respects to the immediate term, and its implications. As I have said, Monopolies are the antithesis to Perfect Competition; you should know this as, Free Market economics necessarily assume Perfect Competition. This is from the Wiki:

No close substitutes: A monopoly is not merely the state of having control over a product; it also means that there is no real alternative to the monopolised product.

A price maker: Because a single firm controls the total supply in a pure monopoly, it is able to exert a significant degree of control over the price by changing the quantity supplied.

Other common assumptions in modeling monopolies include the presence of multiple buyers (if a firm is the only buyer, it also has a monopsony), an identical price for all buyers, and asymmetric information. A company with a monopoly does not undergo price pressure from competitors, although it may face pricing pressure from potential competition. If a company raises prices too high, then others may enter the market if they are able to provide the same good, or a substitute, at a lower price.[5] The idea that monopolies in markets with easy entry need not be regulated against is known as the "revolution in monopoly theory".[6]

A monopolist can extract only one premium, and getting into complementary markets does not pay. That is, the total profits a monopolist could earn if it sought to leverage its monopoly in one market by monopolizing a complementary market are equal to the extra profits it could earn anyway by charging more for the monopoly product itself.

However, the one monopoly profit theorem does not hold true if there exist:

Stranded customers in the monopoly good.
Poorly informed customers.
High fixed costs in the tied good.
Economies of scale in the tied good.
Price regulations for the monopoly product
Now, I have bolded what you have misunderstood, and italicized what you were exactly right about. However, keeping in mind, this is a Monopoly Theorem specific to your intended use of the word: A uni-industrial Monopoly. As recent history shows, multi-industry monopolization does pay, and is an aspiration of most TNCs.

What you're not factoring in, is that in a free market, with vigilant consumers and stiff competition, wouldn't the transparent company be the one you want to spend your hard earned money on? Its certainly a selling point to me when you open your chicken farm to the public and let me inspect how you make my food for myself.
I am factoring in exactly that, but you are overlooking a few key points in this debate! Modern consumers are uninformed, Rob; this is not a posit, but a reality. Herein, your concept of a Pure Free Market fails miserably, as I have said previously. The belief that the Market will regulate itself (untrue, as the regulation would necessarily come from the microscopic level) fundamentally assumes Perfect Competition (the utter and total complete opposite of Monopolies, which is why they are a detriment to a Free Market) and informed consumers.

Yes. Again, you're not factoring in that regulation is already in place. Think about it. Knowing that you have a regulatory agency watching your every move, would that encourage transparency in your operations?
I think you may have misunderstood again, as you did not provide a plausible basis for your assumption. Rob, answer this basic question:

In a Market complete lacking any regulations - i.e., incentives, and/or legal obligations - to be transparent, fair, and carry out actions in the public health - which, in most cases, ADD cost - why would a corporate entity do so?

This question is very fundamental to your belief, but presents to you even more fundamental contradictions. You yourself have stated companies act in Rational Self-Interest; this equates to nothing more and nothing less than the maximization of profits; corollary, implementing health and competition regulations necessarily takes more capital in the form of expended labour and extra machinery. So, if not forced to do so, why would a company acting in Rational Self-Interest do so?

Can you see what I am driving at here?

So you're saying that every company is inherently motivated to cut costs at the detriment to the consumer? Wouldn't you say that harming your customer base is bad?
Again, do you feel McDonald's is not aware of the detriment their food poses? I am sure, as this is a reality, you do not. Therefore, I ask you again, why would this situation change in a lack of regulation?

A good example in a microcosm is a supplement company. Yes, theres muscletechs out there selling bunk, but most likely missing out on the long term business, but theres also the USPs and Designer Supplements of the world, honestly trying to bring a high quality product to the consumer and making money in the process. They know if their products didn't work, they'd lose their repeat customers.
Unfortunately, this may be your most antithetical example! How many times have ingredients been found to be underdosed? How many times have companies been revealed to be putting steroids in natural products? How many companies out there combine three to four methylated steroids and are sold at mainstream outlets? Creating a product to be sold over-the-counter comes equipped with the assumption that people will harm themselves using your product (a 17 year old destroying his natural hormone cycle, for example).

Do you blame this on a capitalist model or a model of government intervention? I certainly blame it on the latter.
I blame it on a wide range of cultural, geographic and socio-economic factors; none of which can be succinctly and causally linked to either government or the Capitalist model.

Don't you think that the fact that McDonald's pays millions in lobbying fees to a government who regulates farming may have *something* to do with this?

We're really talking chicken and eggs here.
Exactly! You are confusing me, as you seem to be on the precipice of making the logical assumption, and then turning backwards out of partisanship. McDonald's does EXACTLY that to AVOID regulations! So, in turn, why would they spontaneously clean up their act - so to speak - if regulations are not there?! They are necessarily avoiding regulations rob - i.e., trying to perpetuate themselves in as free of Market as possible!

Also, *if* McDonalds was a monopoly, wouldn't the fact that the government is there to do their bidding for campaign contributions have the effect of further emboldening this monopoly? This was the primary cause of the "Robber Barons" of the 1890s.
I have never once denied this is a possibility. I merely feeling I am illuminating to you that the Free Market is completely imperfect, and presents more harm than an Interventionist Market - that is, the Lesser of Two Evils.

The potential corruption in a system with government intervention dwarfs any free market corruption scheme.
Here is another example for you:

You are a teacher, and have a classroom full of somewhat unruly children who all want the same prize. While you are in the classroom, the children may misbehave somewhat, but the fear of reprimand acts as a mutual deterrent for all of them. Following, your presence ensures that those who break the rules shall be reprimanded.

Now, you leave the room for a lengthy period of time, and leave the prize in the same place. Are the children going to spontaneously regulate themselves to behave in the same polite and respectful manner as when you were in the room? Of course not! That is merely reality.

For this reason, I am having trouble understanding why you would feel a corporate entity would act responsibly if they do not have to.

I disagree. I understand that most people believe in government regulation. I don't. I think it is a tool for corruption and ceding individual liberties. I can quantify why I believe everything I believe about the free market and explain those beliefs in an understandable manner. Thats alone should dissipate any notions that I have a "faith-like" belief in the free market.
You have qualified your beliefs in what you feel to be rationale, but that has since proved to be irrational and an invalid argumentative form; you do so in the face of empirical evidence and rationale which suggests otherwise and; finally, have not responded to logical hypotheticals. I would very bluntly say you have a faith-like belief in the Free Market. You expounded this very clearly when you said the Market exists 'in-itself'. It, in fact, does not: It is comprised of individual agents and conglomerated individual agents, and so to say the Market does anything 'itself' - without prefacing this with the adjunct understanding that the Market is comprised of individuals, and this creates action - is faith-like.


Word. I'm lost on this. :ntome:
I know! :)

I don't buy this. Think of it like an ant farm, yes an ant can make a tunnel collapse, but the only way you can screw up the whole farm is for an outsider to shake it up.
A few things fundamentally flawed here:

a) Ants are conditioned and do not act in Rational Self-Interest, but in the interests always of the entire colony. Such cohesion does not exist in modern Capitalism.

b) There is nothing to 'buy', as it were. That is, unless you believe companies accidentally create products and services? If not, then you surely come to terms that there are obvious intentions in any Market.

Again, this is hinging on the theory that a monopoly in an industry is independent from the rest of the market. If you acknowledge that even a company who has a "monopoly" is still competing with other industries the entire theory fall like a house of cards.
See explanation of Wiki above.

Never took it! I was a history major! Is it that obvious! :rofl:
Yes and no! You have a very ostensible passion to learn, and even more ostensible adherence to Free Market Capitalism. Unfortunately, you have some fundamental misunderstandings of the relevant terminology, which are leading to even more fundamental misunderstandings of their implications!
 
EasyEJL

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You are driving along a sparsely populated road when you come to a stop light. There are no other cars within view whatsoever, what do you do? Most likely, you go through it unabated.
strangely enough I stop.
 
RobInKuwait

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This caveat applies for your entire line of responses: While your responses are logically valid within their own parameters, they do not equate with the classical uses of the terminology we are utilizing, or a classical understanding of the concepts those words connote. I think it wise to take a few steps back and mutually define these terms as either; a) you are misusing some of them or; b) I am misunderstanding your uses!
Agreed. I feel like I just finished French 101 and I'm trying to talk to Charles de Gaulle!

For example, to abstract something logically is to remove it from its basis in a material reality, and make for it a completely theoretical replacement. In this respect, Marx's works are not logical abstractions, as they deal with specific socio-historical phenomenon, in certain socio-historical periods of development occurring in the material world - i.e., a material conception and solution to reality. The Pure Free Market - especially as you have used it: separated from its composition by human agents - is an abstraction because it does not and cannot exist (some would say, never would) - it is a hypothetical ideal, and therefore is nothing but a mere abstraction.
OK, I think that's what I originally interpreted it to mean, but my ignorance of Marx's work is what created the confusion. However, I don't feel envisioning the free market is a big jump in logical abstractions because some periods in US history have been closer to reaching the free market ideal than others.

Again, possibly some definitions are necessary to clear up some of the muddled confusion.

in⋅ter⋅ven⋅tion [in-ter-ven-shuhn]
–noun
1.the act or fact of intervening.
2.interposition or interference of one state in the affairs of another.

n⋅ter⋅ven⋅tion⋅ism [in-ter-ven-shuh-niz-uhm]
–noun
the policy or doctrine of intervening, esp. government interference in the affairs of another state or in domestic economic affairs.
Agreed.

Intervention necessarily implies momentary involvement, as there must be a foundation within which to intercede. Therefore, I said that Government intervention is necessary, but not the fundamental basis of an Interventionist Economy. This is where I feel you have made an unwarranted leap of semantics and logic; both in respects to previous replies and the discussion at hand. To intervene implies to act momentarily, to intercede into the basis of an economy - i.e., a Capitally driven economy.
I think ANY intervention will have a butterfly effect/unintended consequences on the economy, both in the psychologically and fiscally. Minimal government interference may as well be any amount government interference as it creates the illusion that a market cannot function without interference. That being said, I think the less government intervention the better as it limits the amount of fcking up the gov't can do.

Obviously, we disagree on this point. I don't see the US adopting a laissez faire economy as the country lost this liberty long ago and by its very nature, government does not return liberties its confiscated. This is a mute point.

par⋅ti⋅san [pahr-tuh-zuhn, -suhn; Brit. pahr-tuh-zan]
–noun
1. an adherent or supporter of a person, group, party, or cause, esp. a person who shows a biased, emotional allegiance.
2. Military. a member of a party of light or irregular troops engaged in harassing an enemy, esp. a member of a guerrilla band engaged in fighting or sabotage against an occupying army.
–adjective
3. of, pertaining to, or characteristic of partisans; partial to a specific party, person, etc.: partisan politics.
4. of, pertaining to, or carried on by military partisans or guerrillas.

Political Partisanship is merely one form of Partisanship. The word itself merely implies the first distinction: Adherently supporting a person, group, or ideal with biased emotional allegiance. I told you to cast this partisanship aside, as it is obviously tilting your judgment.
I don't see my belief in free market economics to be blinding my logic, if that's what you're implying. I accept that there is government intervention. I believe the less the better.

Most definitely so! Here is an example for you:

You are driving along a sparsely populated road when you come to a stop light. There are no other cars within view whatsoever, what do you do? Most likely, you go through it unabated.

Now, applying this same logic, how is it you feel companies would spontaneously adhere to stringent, non-existent health-regulations? Those corporate entities (such as Tyson and McDonald's) who deliberately ignore regulations do so for the purpose of cutting costs and maximizing profits - to, as you have said, achieve the goal of market domination. When one removes all regulations whatsoever, I fail to see how you believe these companies would cease such activities in light of an altruistic approach! In fact, I would posit the exact opposite, that if no regulations were present, the vast majority of companies would supersede morality in the favor of profit maximization (an act of Irrational Rationality); just as most individuals would run the red light.
The fundamental flaw in your logic is that me going through the stop sign is me IGNORING a regulation. Regulations provide an excuse for companies to not think about the ramifications of their actions. Instead of thinking, what will happen to our repeat business if this product is imperfect, the great creative minds of industry ask, what can we do to make this product pass inspection?
Again, this assumes a transparency of information which barely exists now, and surely would not exist in a Free Market. So we are clear, a Free Market denotes a complete lack of governmental regulation; both in respects to health and fiscal policy. So (say) Company X is making a product that may kill people ten years from now, would they reveal that? If you apply your own logic, they of course will not! This destroy their credibility and sales. Again, logical determinations come into play here: You posit the corporate entity as a thing wishing to maximize its profits as the primary goal even in a regulated market, but then, contradictorily, assume the cessation of this goal in an unregulated market? How so?
What you're not factoring in is a mutually beneficial relationship with the consumer is often more profitable than taking advantage of the consumer.

Your unspoken belief is that corporations and individuals are not equals. I believe they are in every since of the word. Every relationship in a free market economy are that of two equals. Worker to employer, seller to buyer, worker to worker, employer to employer. There is no force anywhere in the equation and every market decision is based entirely on free will. When government gets involved, they bring their monopoly on force in the equation and make it so the relationships are no longer equal.

Once again, you are denying the antecedent which is a logical fallacy. Your reasoning is incomplete, and you have merely denied my initial antecedent (Government Intervention) without replacing it with a plausible replacement. You have not yet answered this question:

Why, if McDonald's does produce food now which kills its consumer base, would it produce healthier food in a unregulated market?

Simply, it would not. There is no motivation to change, and no guidelines to adhere to. They kill their consumer base now (which, believe it or not, is their business model), so why would things alter?

Again, a misunderstanding afoot, so let me clarify what 'Denying the Antecedent' means:

Essentially you are positing if there is Governmental Regulation (p), then there will be Market Failures (q). Following, you are attempting to say if there is no Governmental Regulation (~p) then there will be no Market Failure (~q). Why is this logically invalid? Because there are a myriad of other situations within the which the market can and does fail, aside from Governmental Regulations. In this sense, it is not like your counterexample whatsoever. So, I say again, you have replaced my antecedent without a plausible explanation, and therefore (objectively and formally) your logic is invalid.
I don't believe the market can FAIL without government intervention. There can be setbacks, but I they will always self correct unless external influences interrupt the process.

We fundamentally disagree that history shows this.

You can cite the great depression, but I would reply that the market would have self corrected if external influences had not prevented this.

Historians have hundreds of ways of interpreting every events, such as "Bush's Failed Economic Policies" or "Interventionism gone bad". The fall or Nazi Germany or the Rise of the Cold War.

You are assuming that because my logical interpretation of events differs from yours that my argument and belief structure is invalid. We look at the same events and interpret the cause and effects differently, which leads to our different understandings.

You are a history major, so this should be short task for you! Why does the Market keep repeating the same perpetual failures?
Government Intervention.

Rob, I think you have a very fundamental and basic misinterpretation of what Monopoly denotes; both in respects to the immediate term, and its implications. As I have said, Monopolies are the antithesis to Perfect Competition; you should know this as, Free Market economics necessarily assume Perfect Competition. This is from the Wiki:

Now, I have bolded what you have misunderstood, and italicized what you were exactly right about. However, keeping in mind, this is a Monopoly Theorem specific to your intended use of the word: A uni-industrial Monopoly. As recent history shows, multi-industry monopolization does pay, and is an aspiration of most TNCs.
Based upon that definition, I don't believe monopolies exist in a free market, only in an interventionist economy, and due to the fact that there is intervention in the economy.

I am factoring in exactly that, but you are overlooking a few key points in this debate! Modern consumers are uninformed, Rob; this is not a posit, but a reality.
My point is that intervention is what makes consumers uninformed, just as welfare makes poor people stay poor.

Herein, your concept of a Pure Free Market fails miserably, as I have said previously. The belief that the Market will regulate itself (untrue, as the regulation would necessarily come from the microscopic level) fundamentally assumes Perfect Competition (the utter and total complete opposite of Monopolies, which is why they are a detriment to a Free Market) and informed consumers.
Intervention breeds intervention, as government breeds more government.
I think you may have misunderstood again, as you did not provide a plausible basis for your assumption. Rob, answer this basic question:

In a Market complete lacking any regulations - i.e., incentives, and/or legal obligations - to be transparent, fair, and carry out actions in the public health - which, in most cases, ADD cost - why would a corporate entity do so?
As a competitive advantage.

This question is very fundamental to your belief, but presents to you even more fundamental contradictions. You yourself have stated companies act in Rational Self-Interest; this equates to nothing more and nothing less than the maximization of profits; corollary, implementing health and competition regulations necessarily takes more capital in the form of expended labour and extra machinery. So, if not forced to do so, why would a company acting in Rational Self-Interest do so?

Can you see what I am driving at here?
I understand what you are driving at. Why do some supplement companies provide lab tests when they're not mandated to? To build consumer trust.

Again, do you feel McDonald's is not aware of the detriment their food poses? I am sure, as this is a reality, you do not. Therefore, I ask you again, why would this situation change in a lack of regulation?
There's no regulation that says McDonald's has to sell salads, diet coke, and carrots. But they do.

Unfortunately, this may be your most antithetical example! How many times have ingredients been found to be underdosed? How many times have companies been revealed to be putting steroids in natural products? How many companies out there combine three to four methylated steroids and are sold at mainstream outlets? Creating a product to be sold over-the-counter comes equipped with the assumption that people will harm themselves using your product (a 17 year old destroying his natural hormone cycle, for example).
Agreed. Let the buyer beware. I've never had a cause for concern dealing with Nutraplanet, Designer Supplements and several other board sponsors. There are NO regulations in place forcing these company's to have strong customer service and high quality products, but they do. They know they are appealing to educated, informed consumers who won't settle for second rate products in a competitive supplement market. Yes, there are bad companies. Yes, there are good companies. I like the lack of regulation in the supplement industry. It lets me decide what is best as a consumer and stay loyal to the company's that have my best interest at heart.

I blame it on a wide range of cultural, geographic and socio-economic factors; none of which can be succinctly and causally linked to either government or the Capitalist model.
I blame it on government.

Exactly! You are confusing me, as you seem to be on the precipice of making the logical assumption, and then turning backwards out of partisanship. McDonald's does EXACTLY that to AVOID regulations! So, in turn, why would they spontaneously clean up their act - so to speak - if regulations are not there?! They are necessarily avoiding regulations rob - i.e., trying to perpetuate themselves in as free of Market as possible!
You are twisting what I said. McDonald's pays to have a market advantage, not just to skirt regulation. Government intervention robs the consumer of the equality of the free market I spoke about earlier.

I have never once denied this is a possibility. I merely feeling I am illuminating to you that the Free Market is completely imperfect, and presents more harm than an Interventionist Market - that is, the Lesser of Two Evils.
I feel the opposite. Free Market is the only moral choice.

Here is another example for you:

You are a teacher, and have a classroom full of somewhat unruly children who all want the same prize. While you are in the classroom, the children may misbehave somewhat, but the fear of reprimand acts as a mutual deterrent for all of them. Following, your presence ensures that those who break the rules shall be reprimanded.

Now, you leave the room for a lengthy period of time, and leave the prize in the same place. Are the children going to spontaneously regulate themselves to behave in the same polite and respectful manner as when you were in the room? Of course not! That is merely reality.
The free market model hinges on fundamental laws being enforced, such as murder, theft,and the sanctity of a contract. If these are not enforced there will be anarchy. I think your example does not mirror the reality of regulatory enforcement, which is often based on arbitrary codes and standards that vary from inspector to inspector.

For this reason, I am having trouble understanding why you would feel a corporate entity would act responsibly if they do not have to.
I'm not saying they always would. I'm saying its often in their best interest to. Do you really think Rolex would stop making quality watches in suddenly there were no regulations on watches? If you want to buy a Bolex you get what you pay for.

You have qualified your beliefs in what you feel to be rationale, but that has since proved to be irrational and an invalid argumentative form; you do so in the face of empirical evidence and rationale which suggests otherwise and; finally, have not responded to logical hypotheticals. I would very bluntly say you have a faith-like belief in the Free Market. You expounded this very clearly when you said the Market exists 'in-itself'. It, in fact, does not: It is comprised of individual agents and conglomerated individual agents, and so to say the Market does anything 'itself' - without prefacing this with the adjunct understanding that the Market is comprised of individuals, and this creates action - is faith-like.
I disagree. I believe in the free market not on faith but on an understanding that it is the only moral and sane economic system.

A few things fundamentally flawed here:

a) Ants are conditioned and do not act in Rational Self-Interest, but in the interests always of the entire colony. Such cohesion does not exist in modern Capitalism.
I don't think the metaphor is any less relevant.

b) There is nothing to 'buy', as it were. That is, unless you believe companies accidentally create products and services? If not, then you surely come to terms that there are obvious intentions in any Market.
....


See explanation of Wiki above.



Yes and no! You have a very ostensible passion to learn, and even more ostensible adherence to Free Market Capitalism. Unfortunately, you have some fundamental misunderstandings of the relevant terminology, which are leading to even more fundamental misunderstandings of their implications!
Agreed. I don't know all the terms. I wish I had a better background in economics.
 
Mulletsoldier

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Rather than quote you verbatim, I will merely address the most pertinent aspects. I choose to do this, because, simply, you have not answered a few fundamental questions I have posited. It seems we may be at a stalemate.

1) Intervention implies exactly as the dictionary defines it. You seem to be making a logical leap that Intervention -> Basis for the Economy. Such is not classical Neokeynesianism, or the debate afoot here.

2) Your misunderstanding of the red light analogy is as follows: Without other cars the light loses its significance, and therefore ceases to be a regulation in the official sense - therefore, in the perception that consequences will not result from your action, you run it. The premise was lack of consequences and lack of regulation.

3) Address this question and its corollaries, as it is fundamental to your belief system:

You posit the corporate entity as a thing wishing to maximize its profits as the primary goal even in a regulated market, but then, contradictorily, assume the cessation of this goal in an unregulated market? How so?

You yourself have stated companies act in Rational Self-Interest; this equates to nothing more and nothing less than the maximization of profits; corollary, implementing health and competition regulations necessarily takes more capital in the form of expended labour and extra machinery. So, if not forced to do so, why would a company acting in Rational Self-Interest do so?

I have reworded this question several times, in seeking the basis for your belief.

4) I am not interpreting your logic, you are presenting it, and I am telling you it is formally and informally invalid. This does not hinge on perception, but argumentative forms. What you are saying may very well be a valid statement, but you have not refuted mine in the least. Denying the Antecedent is illogical because it merely begs the question, rather than solving the problem. This is no offense to you, and you are more than welcome to Google argumentative forms to verify what I am expounding.

5) I will quote this specifically, as it is pertinent:

Again, do you feel McDonald's is not aware of the detriment their food poses? I am sure, as this is a reality, you do not. Therefore, I ask you again, why would this situation change in a lack of regulation?
There's no regulation that says McDonald's has to sell salads, diet coke, and carrots. But they do.
How does that answer my question? I was gearing my question towards the negative sense, and you merely positively affirmed an alternative - that is, I asked why they would stop doing something negative, and you provided a current positive as an answer. Again, this is not valid. Simply because they supply 'healthy' food options, does not mean they cease selling the most detrimental ones. Further, their health food options are as high-calorie as their unhealthy options, so I feel your argument lost weight there.

6)
Based upon that definition, I don't believe monopolies exist in a free market, only in an interventionist economy, and due to the fact that there is intervention in the economy.
Could you elaborate (in a technical sense) what you mean here? Or, in other words, how do you reach this conclusion?

7) Government Intervention is a cluster****ed affair, however, it essentially does none of the things you posit: Acting as a collusive force; robbing equality from the Market; Monopoly creation and so forth. Simply, anti-trust and health and labor laws prevent such events.

8)
I think your example does not mirror the reality of regulatory enforcement, which is often based on arbitrary codes and standards that vary from inspector to inspector.
Of course it does, when viewed from the intended Macroscopic perspective! Consider the example again, with each student being a massive conglomerate, and the 'teacher' being the collective regulatory forces of the market.
 
Mulletsoldier

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oh then i'd blow thru it, as it would cover the ticket. For whatever reason, i'm really anal about stopsigns + stoplights.
Exactly. So, this was my twofold point:

a) If you are an individual who would stop, the consequences stemming from regulation are enough of a deterrent and;
b) If you are an individual who does not regard the authority in this instance, you will blow through it.

Therefore, why would a company regulate itself in the same manner when there is 'X' amount of money on the other side of the light?
 
EasyEJL

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Exactly. So, this was my twofold point:

a) If you are an individual who would stop, the consequences stemming from regulation are enough of a deterrent and;
b) If you are an individual who does not regard the authority in this instance, you will blow through it.

Therefore, why would a company regulate itself in the same manner when there is 'X' amount of money on the other side of the light?
Only if their reputation in the market would be marred enough to cause them as much or more loss of money by being caught playing shenanigans. I still frequently stop at spots where there is no risk, just from morality's sake. but if there was a light that was just a reminder but wasn't attached to regulation i would likely ignore it most of the time. So (although irrelevant to the conversation) for me its more about the rule being there rather than fear of enforcement. for speed on the other hand I drive to avoid enforcement which means knowing where its ok to drive faster.
 
Mulletsoldier

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Only if their reputation in the market would be marred enough to cause them as much or more loss of money by being caught playing shenanigans. I still frequently stop at spots where there is no risk, just from morality's sake. but if there was a light that was just a reminder but wasn't attached to regulation i would likely ignore it most of the time. So (although irrelevant to the conversation) for me its more about the rule being there rather than fear of enforcement. for speed on the other hand I drive to avoid enforcement which means knowing where its ok to drive faster.
No, all you said was pertinent, I thought.

You bring up two possible situations: An adherence to regulation due to consequence and; an adherence to regulation due to morality. I feel both would potentially exist in a Free Market, but the lack of regulation would would make the opportunities for corruption, collusion, and coercion inexhaustible. Good points.
 
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Ah, and so we are clear, I understand and agree that there are dire consequences associated with harming your consumer base; therefore, as Easy alluded to, most companies would hypothesize the value for customer damage, and the value for customer trust, and carry out whichever maximizes profits the most. As a result, killing your consumers is unsound business practices; however, a Free Market always leaves this possibility open, and such is not responsible.
 
EasyEJL

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My basic feel is that regulation that creates transparency rather than limits become effective in that regard. regulations on accounting, reporting, etc all make sense. Regulation that enforces limits can go too far. As a piece of that, I suppose there are some limiting regulations that make sense, however as with many things in a political argument everything becomes completely polarized with democrats wanting to slather layer after layer of new pointless regulations often duplicating existing but poorly enforced ones, and republicans want to strip all regulations of any form whatsoever.
 
EasyEJL

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Ah, and so we are clear, I understand and agree that there are dire consequences associated with harming your consumer base; therefore, as Easy alluded to, most companies would hypothesize the value for customer damage, and the value for customer trust, and carry out whichever maximizes profits the most. As a result, killing your consumers is unsound business practices; however, a Free Market always leaves this possibility open, and such is not responsible.
Yes, it mostly just takes the right sort of collusion amongst (generally) men or women nearing retirement, who want to pad their retirement account and not truly care about the state of the company once they are gone. However at any sizeable enough company there is generally enough spread of duties and accounting and planning internally that its hard if not impossible for this to happen without dissenters. Other than the tobacco and alchohol industries of course.
 
RobInKuwait

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Rather than quote you verbatim, I will merely address the most pertinent aspects. I choose to do this, because, simply, you have not answered a few fundamental questions I have posited. It seems we may be at a stalemate.
I agree. I'll try to answer all your points as succinctly as possible.

1) Intervention implies exactly as the dictionary defines it. You seem to be making a logical leap that Intervention -> Basis for the Economy. Such is not classical Neokeynesianism, or the debate afoot here.
I don't necessarily think its a logical leap. Intervention economics has a fatalistic viewpoint in the logical conclusion of capitalism. This viewpoint makes intervention the logical answer to hardship in the economy. Intervention is then necessarily the lynch pin that holds the economy together. Maybe basis is not the word, but it is the lynchpin for that for the economic theory.

2) Your misunderstanding of the red light analogy is as follows: Without other cars the light loses its significance, and therefore ceases to be a regulation in the official sense - therefore, in the perception that consequences will not result from your action, you run it. The premise was lack of consequences and lack of regulation.
I'm not sure I'm following the metaphor.

My view is that there are consequences in the free market without regulation. IE. loss of consumer trust, and in the process then longterm customer business.

3) Address this question and its corollaries, as it is fundamental to your belief system:

You posit the corporate entity as a thing wishing to maximize its profits as the primary goal even in a regulated market, but then, contradictorily, assume the cessation of this goal in an unregulated market? How so?

You yourself have stated companies act in Rational Self-Interest; this equates to nothing more and nothing less than the maximization of profits; corollary, implementing health and competition regulations necessarily takes more capital in the form of expended labour and extra machinery. So, if not forced to do so, why would a company acting in Rational Self-Interest do so?

I have reworded this question several times, in seeking the basis for your belief.
The goal doesn't change. The goal is to maximize profits in either system. Currently there are responsible and irresponsible companies, even with regulations. However, there is less incentive to be a responsible company, when the government is assuring the consumer that all companies meet a minimal standard. When that is the case, it makes more sense to just optimize production.

Your unspoken assumption is that maximizing profits is purely maximizing production. Thats not the case. Company's spend billions yearly in marketing, improving customer service, and building ongoing relationships with customers. There are many successful business models, and without regulations in place the number of possible successful business models increase, which gives a greater benefit to the consumer and the companies.

4) I am not interpreting your logic, you are presenting it, and I am telling you it is formally and informally invalid. This does not hinge on perception, but argumentative forms. What you are saying may very well be a valid statement, but you have not refuted mine in the least. Denying the Antecedent is illogical because it merely begs the question, rather than solving the problem. This is no offense to you, and you are more than welcome to Google argumentative forms to verify what I am expounding.
Neither of us can prove to the other that one system is better than the other. As you pointed out, the free market is a logical abstraction while the mixed economy is a reality.

5) I will quote this specifically, as it is pertinent:
How does that answer my question? I was gearing my question towards the negative sense, and you merely positively affirmed an alternative - that is, I asked why they would stop doing something negative, and you provided a current positive as an answer. Again, this is not valid. Simply because they supply 'healthy' food options, does not mean they cease selling the most detrimental ones. Further, their health food options are as high-calorie as their unhealthy options, so I feel your argument lost weight there.
I brought up the health food to show that they are responding to the consumer.

I really don't understand why you want me to justify McDonald's business practice in order to justify free market capitalism. I'm not saying all companies will be responsible in free market capitalism, I'm that there is a greater incentive when there is no regulation.

6) Could you elaborate (in a technical sense) what you mean here? Or, in other words, how do you reach this conclusion?
In a free market economy everyone is on a level playing field, interacting as equals. The only way anyone can get a competitive advantage is by providing a better and/or cheaper product. Monopolies may occur, but the coercive element is not there.

In an interventionist economy, the government changes the dynamic, by bringing force into the equation. Government has the ability to give preferential treatment to certain companies, give preferential treatment to consumers, or give preferential treatment to all companies over consumers. Each of these treatments destroys the dynamic of equals interacting. In the process, government has the power to grant a monopoly through their legislation or create a monopoly through nationalization.

7) Government Intervention is a cluster****ed affair, however, it essentially does none of the things you posit: Acting as a collusive force; robbing equality from the Market; Monopoly creation and so forth. Simply, anti-trust and health and labor laws prevent such events.
Anti trust in itself is a tool to preferentially favor companies. Labor laws and government sponsored unionization causes inequality between companies and workers.

Government intervention has no unifying ideal. It is based upon a feeling or guess of what is best at that moment. 80% of congresspeople have no formal economic training, yet you think they know what's best for the economy?

8) Of course it does, when viewed from the intended Macroscopic perspective! Consider the example again, with each student being a massive conglomerate, and the 'teacher' being the collective regulatory forces of the market.
What's disturbing about that metaphor is that the companies are seen as immature 'children' while government force is seen as the mature 'teacher'.

Keep in mind these are all individuals. We've seen the government bring our economy to its knees for the sake of a few campaign dollars, yet these are the benevolent forces you want to trust regulating our economy by the point of the gun.

The beauty of free market economics, is that its self regulating. There's no imbalance. Everyone is on a level playing field and no one can arrest a competitor in exchange for campaign contributions.

I agree with you I think we may be at a impasse here.
 
Mulletsoldier

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I don't necessarily think its a logical leap. Intervention economics has a fatalistic viewpoint in the logical conclusion of capitalism. This viewpoint makes intervention the logical answer to hardship in the economy. Intervention is then necessarily the lynch pin that holds the economy together. Maybe basis is not the word, but it is the lynchpin for that for the economic theory.
It is not, though. Nor is it Fatalist; it is a Realist position. It embraces the perpetual failures of a Pure Capitalist Market, and seeks to avoid them with intermittent regulation. How you continue to make this jump from the definition of Intervention, to primary economic MO, is beyond me.

I'm not sure I'm following the metaphor.

My view is that there are consequences in the free market without regulation. IE. loss of consumer trust, and in the process then longterm customer business.
To a point, yes. But as Easy alluded to before, without regulation, individuals or corporate entities reaching the precipice of their business cycle would be essentially free to commit irreparable damage.

The goal doesn't change. The goal is to maximize profits in either system. Currently there are responsible and irresponsible companies, even with regulations. However, there is less incentive to be a responsible company, when the government is assuring the consumer that all companies meet a minimal standard. When that is the case, it makes more sense to just optimize production.
How so, though? It continues to strike me - rightfully or wrongfully - that you are making logical leaps without any technical support! If the mode of production in Modern-Day is still primarily Capitalist (though mixed), then the primary goal is to produce the highest quality products possible. It would seem you are insinuating that regulation removes some of this motivation, but such is not logical.

The optimization of production is meeting consumer demands, which I feel you are failing to realize. I think you are viewing the mass-consumption/production practices of modern day Capital Exchange, and assuming this was a regulatory move; this is simply not the case. The mass, lessened production of goods has nothing to do with meeting regulations, but meeting the ostentatious consumption habits of North America.

A company simply cannot produce the highest quality and the highest quantity goods due to time, labor constraints, and price-points: Too much time is invested in a single product, prices rise with lack of availability. While this is a profitable scenario, it is not the most profitable scenario. In turn, companies produce a slightly lesser quality good in lieu of producing a higher quantity, to be sold at a relative price-point - i.e., mass production Economics. This process has nothing to do with Government Intervention.

Your unspoken assumption is that maximizing profits is purely maximizing production. Thats not the case. Company's spend billions yearly in marketing, improving customer service, and building ongoing relationships with customers. There are many successful business models, and without regulations in place the number of possible successful business models increase, which gives a greater benefit to the consumer and the companies.
Again, you have ascribed an assumption to me I am not making! This is becoming an unwelcome trend on your behalf!

Two points to this effect, though: See above and; these things listed do absolutely nothing to further product quality, so I am unsure your point therein? Business relationships are fundamental to success, but this speaks absolutely nothing to the quality of the product; and, further, such things are made for the very purpose of profit and production maximization.

I brought up the health food to show that they are responding to the consumer.

I really don't understand why you want me to justify McDonald's business practice in order to justify free market capitalism. I'm not saying all companies will be responsible in free market capitalism, I'm that there is a greater incentive when there is no regulation.
And I am asking you why; a question, unfortunately, you have not really answered in any true way.

McDonald's rational practices have been applied to business running the industrial gamut. Their compartmentalization, mechanization and sheer dehumanization of almost every facet of their production model is a microcosm of contemporary production models. They are a perfect comparison and point of justification here.

In a free market economy everyone is on a level playing field, interacting as equals. The only way anyone can get a competitive advantage is by providing a better and/or cheaper product. Monopolies may occur, but the coercive element is not there
.

Rob, I am not going to answer this, as, obviously, there is bias afoot here. I could begin to describe all the ways in which a competitor could gain unfair advantages in respects to tax evasion, opaque business practices, unfairly dictating supply and demand, labor abuses and so forth, but you will most likely not acknowledge them. If you cannot see how Monopolies are given almost free license to rise in a Free Market, than so be it.

In an interventionist economy, the government changes the dynamic, by bringing force into the equation. Government has the ability to give preferential treatment to certain companies, give preferential treatment to consumers, or give preferential treatment to all companies over consumers. Each of these treatments destroys the dynamic of equals interacting. In the process, government has the power to grant a monopoly through their legislation or create a monopoly through nationalization.
Rob, again, read further into what an Interventionist Economy is. I have failed miserably in relaying it to you, and that is unfortunate. It is a very far thing from what you assume. This debate is hinging upon a misunderstanding of key terms, and what those terms imply. You and I are just pretending to communicate at this point, as you do not know what an Interventionist Economy is.

Anti trust in itself is a tool to preferentially favor companies. Labor laws and government sponsored unionization causes inequality between companies and workers.
Please, explain to me how Labor Laws are inequitable for the business? This is where true partisanship comes into play! I can concede some issues readily to you, but can you not see what labor laws are implemented? You see preventing 14-year olds from working 16 hour shifts as an unfair competitive advantage more than anything else?

Government intervention has no unifying ideal. It is based upon a feeling or guess of what is best at that moment. 80% of congresspeople have no formal economic training, yet you think they know what's best for the economy?
This may come as a shock, but businesses operate on the same principle. That is, unless you are aware of a business of clairvoyants that I am not!

What's disturbing about that metaphor is that the companies are seen as immature 'children' while government force is seen as the mature 'teacher'.

Keep in mind these are all individuals. We've seen the government bring our economy to its knees for the sake of a few campaign dollars, yet these are the benevolent forces you want to trust regulating our economy by the point of the gun.

The beauty of free market economics, is that its self regulating. There's no imbalance. Everyone is on a level playing field and no one can arrest a competitor in exchange for campaign contributions.
Again you have a fundamental misunderstanding of what an Inteventionist Economy implies. Rather than us wasting more time, you are welcome to research this point on your own, and hopefully reinvigorate this debate when we are communicating properly.
 
EasyEJL

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what about warren buffet's theory that increasing your efficiency by commonly available means being pointless (as your competitors can do the same and you are back at square one) in re

How so, though? It continues to strike me - rightfully or wrongfully - that you are making logical leaps without any technical support! If the mode of production in Modern-Day is still primarily Capitalist (though mixed), then the primary goal is to produce the highest quality products possible. It would seem you are insinuating that regulation removes some of this motivation, but such is not logical.

The optimization of production is meeting consumer demands, which I feel you are failing to realize. I think you are viewing the mass-consumption/production practices of modern day Capital Exchange, and assuming this was a regulatory move; this is simply not the case. The mass, lessened production of goods has nothing to do with meeting regulations, but meeting the ostentatious consumption habits of North America.

A company simply cannot produce the highest quality and the highest quantity goods due to time, labor constraints, and price-points: Too much time is invested in a single product, prices rise with lack of availability. While this is a profitable scenario, it is not the most profitable scenario. In turn, companies produce a slightly lesser quality good in lieu of producing a higher quantity, to be sold at a relative price-point - i.e., mass production Economics. This process has nothing to do with Government Intervention.
not sure if you are familiar with his story of why he turned berkshire hathaway from a textile mill into a holding company. But it was because they had spare ability to invest in new equipment available to increase efficiency and he felt the return (other than keeping the doors open) would be minimally better as the competition was doing the same. So instead he began investing in other companies
 
RobInKuwait

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It is not, though. Nor is it Fatalist; it is a Realist position. It embraces the perpetual failures of a Pure Capitalist Market, and seeks to avoid them with intermittent regulation. How you continue to make this jump from the definition of Intervention, to primary economic MO, is beyond me.
Perpetual failures of a pure capitalist is a fatalistic view of a capitalist economy. You are specifically saying the market failures without government intervention. This specifically is the crux of all our disagreements. I think the market survives without outside influence.

To a point, yes. But as Easy alluded to before, without regulation, individuals or corporate entities reaching the precipice of their business cycle would be essentially free to commit irreparable damage.
Irreparable damage = fatalistic view. Again you're saying the market can't survive on its own. I think it can.

How so, though? It continues to strike me - rightfully or wrongfully - that you are making logical leaps without any technical support! If the mode of production in Modern-Day is still primarily Capitalist (though mixed), then the primary goal is to produce the highest quality products possible. It would seem you are insinuating that regulation removes some of this motivation, but such is not logical.

The optimization of production is meeting consumer demands, which I feel you are failing to realize. I think you are viewing the mass-consumption/production practices of modern day Capital Exchange, and assuming this was a regulatory move; this is simply not the case. The mass, lessened production of goods has nothing to do with meeting regulations, but meeting the ostentatious consumption habits of North America.

A company simply cannot produce the highest quality and the highest quantity goods due to time, labor constraints, and price-points: Too much time is invested in a single product, prices rise with lack of availability. While this is a profitable scenario, it is not the most profitable scenario. In turn, companies produce a slightly lesser quality good in lieu of producing a higher quantity, to be sold at a relative price-point - i.e., mass production Economics. This process has nothing to do with Government Intervention.
You're not understanding my point. I'm saying that when there is government regulation, the government is implicitly guaranteeing a minimal quality in goods. Without their intervention it falls on the company and the company's reputation to guarantee the quality of their goods.

Again, you have ascribed an assumption to me I am not making! This is becoming an unwelcome trend on your behalf!
This is where I interpreted you to be saying that:

You yourself have stated companies act in Rational Self-Interest; this equates to nothing more and nothing less than the maximization of profits; corollary, implementing health and competition regulations necessarily takes more capital in the form of expended labour and extra machinery. So, if not forced to do so, why would a company acting in Rational Self-Interest do so?
Maybe I misinterpreted what you said, but it sounded top me like you were saying that if a company wanted to maximize profits why would it implement internal health regulations and instead not spend more on labour and machinery.


Two points to this effect, though: See above and; these things listed do absolutely nothing to further product quality, so I am unsure your point therein? Business relationships are fundamental to success, but this speaks absolutely nothing to the quality of the product; and, further, such things are made for the very purpose of profit and production maximization.
As is product quality. If Coke tastes good, people will buy more.


And I am asking you why; a question, unfortunately, you have not really answered in any true way.

McDonald's rational practices have been applied to business running the industrial gamut. Their compartmentalization, mechanization and sheer dehumanization of almost every facet of their production model is a microcosm of contemporary production models. They are a perfect comparison and point of justification here.
McDonald's is a way for you to pick the battlefield in order to put a negative spin on Capitalism. What's wrong with Subway or Starbucks? Why is McDonald's the lone representative of capitalism. That's like me saying that Fannie Mae is the lone representative of intervention government.

Rob, I am not going to answer this, as, obviously, there is bias afoot here. I could begin to describe all the ways in which a competitor could gain unfair advantages in respects to tax evasion, opaque business practices, unfairly dictating supply and demand, labor abuses and so forth, but you will most likely not acknowledge them. If you cannot see how Monopolies are given almost free license to rise in a Free Market, than so be it.
I understand why you think that, but I compare this to the fatalism that I mentioned before. I don't think the market left to its own devices poses the threat you say it does.

Rob, again, read further into what an Interventionist Economy is. I have failed miserably in relaying it to you, and that is unfortunate. It is a very far thing from what you assume. This debate is hinging upon a misunderstanding of key terms, and what those terms imply. You and I are just pretending to communicate at this point, as you do not know what an Interventionist Economy is.
You've explained it to me...

in⋅ter⋅ven⋅tion⋅ism [in-ter-ven-shuh-niz-uhm]
–noun
the policy or doctrine of intervening, esp. government interference in the affairs of another state or in domestic economic affairs.
Are you saying government interference is NOT force? Are you saying that in anti-trust litigation abuses are not possible?

Please, explain to me how Labor Laws are inequitable for the business? This is where true partisanship comes into play! I can concede some issues readily to you, but can you not see what labor laws are implemented?
Look at the Big 3, unions have run them into the ground. Minimum Wage is ineffective and can be detrimental workers and businesses. Anti-trust is a scam perpetuated on the American people.

You see preventing 14-year olds from working 16 hour shifts as an unfair competitive advantage more than anything else?
You got the hot button issue. Personally I'd rather see a 14 year old work than starve or get a handout. I wanted a to get a job at 14, but was not allowed to get one. Obviously this wouldn't have been a 16 hour job, but it would have been by choice, just as the child in the example above would be working by choice, with parents looking out for their best interest.

This may come as a shock, but businesses operate on the same principle. That is, unless you are aware of a business of clairvoyants that I am not!
Not true. Congresspeople are voted in by popularity, not competence. Successful businesses often are successful because they have their best people in their most important positions. Yes, you can cite how some CEOs conned there company's out of money after the bailout, but by and large, CEOs are selected purely out of the ability to make the company money.

Again you have a fundamental misunderstanding of what an Inteventionist Economy implies.
I think you and I fundamentally disagree about whether Interventionalism....on any level, is a positive or negative.

Rather than us wasting more time, you are welcome to research this point on your own, and hopefully reinvigorate this debate when we are communicating properly.
Interventionist Economy implies government intervention...correct?
 
Mulletsoldier

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I give up. If you are so deep in your own bias, that you cannot admit that Labor Laws are a beneficial aspect of regulation, than this conversation is fruitless. That single comment more or less sealed it for me!
 
Mulletsoldier

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http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Keynesian_economics

Feel free to validate what you have said about Interventionism and/or Keynesian Economics.

As I have said, your understanding is fundamentally flawed on several levels, and is causing you to produce inconsistent conclusions. They are somewhat logically valid, but only if you alter the premises to your preconceptions (see: assuming that Keynesianism and Socialism are interrelated). That would be your major flaw.
 
BodyWizard

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I've really enjoyed following this exchange between Rob & Mullet!

Props to both you guys for keeping it civil.

Now that it seems stymied, I'd like to interject a couple of points I feel both of you have overlooked.

One is the notion that the US has always had - and is supposed to have - a 'capitalist' economy. We have ended up as a corporatist-capitalist economy: where we started was a distributed free-enterprise economy. Confusing the two - or worse, pretending the two are either the same or compatible - will only lead to confusion and misunderstanding...and the kind of mess we're in right now.

Another is the concept of scale: a level playing field can't exist when players of radically different natures are on the field. Exhibit 'A' is Wal-Mart's deliberate destruction of the locally-owned retail base of rural & small-town America. Exhibit 'B' is the obvious imbalance between corporations (the number-one wielders/consumers of capital) and individual persons (and non-corporate associations thereof): real persons are mortal - meaning they must sleep, they need medical attention, they will die perforce, and they have multiple motivations of which profit is only one; a corporation is by comparison immortal, infinitely rich, and has profit as its ONLY motivation. Another aspect of the problem of scale is the regional and local nature of 'natural' economies (the closest actual relative to Rob's semi-mythical free market): attempting to govern multiple regional/local economies as if they were a single economic entity will naturally distort these markets to the shape imagined by those doing the governing.

Oh, and Rob? This happens in your classic 'lassez-faire' markets. Reading Adam Smith is fine - but you really need the historical English context in which Smith did his thinking. Specifically, look into the Enclosure Act, and the Luddite rebellions.

Theories, whether free-market or interventionist, are based on the hard-rock reality of what has in fact observably happened; these are the things theory attempts to understand & therefore predict. So please, remember that when speaking 'theoretically'!

Again, major props to you both!
 
Mulletsoldier

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Another is the concept of scale: a level playing field can't exist when players of radically different natures are on the field. Exhibit 'A' is Wal-Mart's deliberate destruction of the locally-owned retail base of rural & small-town America. Exhibit 'B' is the obvious imbalance between corporations (the number-one wielders/consumers of capital) and individual persons (and non-corporate associations thereof): real persons are mortal - meaning they must sleep, they need medical attention, they will die perforce, and they have multiple motivations of which profit is only one; a corporation is by comparison immortal, infinitely rich, and has profit as its ONLY motivation. Another aspect of the problem of scale is the regional and local nature of 'natural' economies (the closest actual relative to Rob's semi-mythical free market): attempting to govern multiple regional/local economies as if they were a single economic entity will naturally distort these markets to the shape imagined by those doing the governing.
Great points. The Irrationality of Rationality is well summated by the bolded portion of your commentary. As Ritzer himself would suggest, the defining characteristic of the current epoch of Globalization (aside from its continuing veracity) is the infinite, hollow-nature of corporate entities - that is, their complete ubiquitousness only exists because of a lack of easily definable identity: They are everything, everywhere, at every time, so to speak. This mode of production is characteristic of the current-brand of mixed-market Capitalism, and is as much to blame as any government intervention; in fact, I would suggest it is the scale and ubiquitousness of the current corporate entity which allows them to mitigate governmental regulations (health, labor, environment) in order to perpetuate the chasm in both income and skill: Highly developed, highly educated, and highly skilled workers which dictate the direction of business, and low developed, low educated, and low skilled workers 'driving the gears', so to speak. Such has been the corporate model for some time, and for this reason I brought up McDonald's!

As well, your example A is quite analogous to my allusion to McDonald's and (I believe) made for the same purpose: To elucidate the inheret lack of fairness in the current market which would be greatly exacerbated in the face of a Pure Market. Corporate Entities such as McDonald's/Wal-Mart and so on are tantamount to Perfect Competition: They dictate price-points and the ability to compete through control of the primary-input goods of their respective services. If (say) Company A controls supply and demand, then the concept of Pure Competition is nothing more than an abstraction; such would occur in a 'Free Market', and such is the inherent contradiction within a 'Free Market'.

As well, I agree with your comments are towards 'theoretical frameworks'. I would merely suggest it is difficult to manifest your 'entire' intellectual framework (so to speak) when debating point-for-point! Therein, one becomes lost in the minutia and the specific points of interest.
 
EasyEJL

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Yes, the concept of scale is critical, its the microsoft model. It is still virtually impossible for anyone to significantly shake microsoft's effective monopoly as there is no other company with the resource levels they have
 

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