Yes because slavery does not coincide with the laws in the bill of rights.
And yet slaves were considered property until the Thirteenth Amendment was ratified. Which occurred when? <---Answer this question ONLY.
While I know you're looking for a blanket answer, where you want me to say that the B.O.R. does not state that blacks were NOT offered equal protections under the law, it's easy to conclude as much when you consider the following; the first ten amendments did nothing to alter any other portions of the Constitution of which PROTECTED slavery.
The bill of rights is merely the collective name for the first 10 amendments of the Constitution. The right to bear arms
did not extend to slaves, this is just one such example. So if the Bill of Rights was written with the intent being to uphold rights for ALL (based on the text), that isn't how it was interpreted by its author(s). Your argument is that the Bill of Rights isn't meant to be interpretive, I say that it was meant to be interpretive based on the various sources and scholarly papers written by historians. If you don't like those references because you view them as intellectual pandering, then refer back to Josh's link on the subject versus...."it's not true because I say so, read the text." Did you even bother to read the link that he provided?