- 02-14-2008, 08:48 PM
- 02-14-2008, 09:22 PM
Don't know.I'm completely talking out my ass here,but i always wondered if they could kind of make the different compounds methylated as one compound.I'm sure they can't,or they would.Could someone explain this?(not trying to hijack your thread,this kind of fits here though)
02-14-2008, 09:23 PM
02-14-2008, 11:06 PM
02-14-2008, 11:27 PM
02-15-2008, 03:55 AM
1. to circumvent legal constraints
2. to enhance oral availability
1. if you remove the methyl group from e.g. methylsten, which does not seem to be on the DEA list of controlled substances, you get stenbolone, which is there. that would make it impossible to sell it legally OTC.
what would superdrol be if you removed the methyl group?
what would DMT be if you removed the methyl group?
what would h-50 be if you removed the methyl group?
2. due to much lower bioavailability you generally require a LOAD more of many compounds when they do not have a methyl group. check e.g. 1-test vs. m1t. m1t is orally effective from maybe less than 5mg upwards. i've tried oral 1-test ether, and i'd consider it comparatively useless even at 360mg/day. such required higher dosing may make the product much more expensive.
3. and not least: if you remove/add a methyl group AFAIK you also change certain intrinsic properties of the compound. compare:
boldenone vs. dbol
atd vs matd
1-test vs. m1t
dienolone vs. mdien
etc. - the list of compounds with profound differences may be longer than that of those where methyl and non-methyl have identical or very similar, properties.
if you remove the methyl group from superdrol, what you get is NOT the same compound with the same properties and just lower bioavailability.
finally if you check the market carefully you'll already find several combo products combining methyl and non-methyl (mostly finigenx magnum and/or max lmg clones) compounds.
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