I understand the idea behind the tapering is to allow a smoother transition back to "normal" test, estrogen, and aromatase levels, whereas without the taper an estrogen spike could theoretically result before stabilization from aromatase's no longer being surpressed coupled with high levels of test (substrate).
However my concern is more about upregulation of estrogen receptors while on an aromatase inhibitor. Once aromatase is suppressed and estrogen levels fall, why should an increase in testosterone be the lone adapatation, why wouldn't estrogen receptors increase as well (likewise in an effort to restabilize estrogen)? In my mind, receptor upregulation (particularly in the tissies) seems like a more lasting effect which is why I am asking about it.
I also seem to recall in Patrick Arnold's study that estrogen levels while on 6-oxo actually rose from pre- 6-oxo levels...however I'm not sure if I'm remembering this correctly.
Any input at all appreciated.