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Is there any evidence to support this 'side effect'? As in evidence published in a peer review journal.
We have all heard stories of people messing up there pct or simply not having a pct and forever fking up their endogenous test production.
The reason I ask this is the oral contraceptive pill works thhrough the same negative feedback loop in females. Exogenous oestrogens/progesterones inhibit the production GnRH, FSH and LH which in turns prevents the ovaries from releasing follicles and producing their own oestrogen. Millions of women are on the OCP worldwide for long periods of time and there seems to be no evidence that it causes any long term decrease in oestrogen and follicle production on cessation. Why would the testes behave differantly?
We have all heard stories of people messing up there pct or simply not having a pct and forever fking up their endogenous test production.
The reason I ask this is the oral contraceptive pill works thhrough the same negative feedback loop in females. Exogenous oestrogens/progesterones inhibit the production GnRH, FSH and LH which in turns prevents the ovaries from releasing follicles and producing their own oestrogen. Millions of women are on the OCP worldwide for long periods of time and there seems to be no evidence that it causes any long term decrease in oestrogen and follicle production on cessation. Why would the testes behave differantly?