- 05-26-2011, 10:14 PM
I was just wondering, how does it work? If a steroid has a higher androgenic number does that mean that there are more androgenic sides associated with that compound? Or does it work off a ratio system, i.e 100Anabolic /50 Androgenic has greater androgenic sides than 200Anabolic /50 Androgenic? Thanks
- 05-28-2011, 04:30 AM
- 05-28-2011, 08:06 AMAntæus Labs rep
05-28-2011, 11:50 AM
Thanks for the reply Henry. So basically the numbers are a comparison to methl test, however they were derived from tests done to rats as opposed to humans. Basically from what I gathered, it is better for a steroid to be anabolic than androgenic, since if it is more androgenic it is associated with sides such as increased facial hair, deeper voice etc.... Is this correct?
05-28-2011, 06:15 PM
05-28-2011, 11:56 PM
Ok thanks fot the clarrification. BTW I have read many of your post from heaps of forums, big Fan man, your knowledge is great...
05-29-2011, 12:16 AM
They don't really mean much. If they did, Epistane would be adding 50lbs of dry muscle to you in a week.
05-29-2011, 01:01 AM
Lol That would be great...
Similar Forum Threads
- By dannyn2007 in forum AnabolicsReplies: 12Last Post: 06-19-2011, 10:46 PM
- By DaveMcNaul in forum AnabolicsReplies: 3Last Post: 05-14-2009, 08:16 PM
- By bpmartyr in forum AnabolicsReplies: 59Last Post: 07-30-2007, 03:51 PM
- By ripped22 in forum AnabolicsReplies: 2Last Post: 11-25-2006, 08:08 PM
- By julius kelp in forum AnabolicsReplies: 2Last Post: 09-10-2006, 01:56 PM