- 05-26-2011, 10:14 PM
I was just wondering, how does it work? If a steroid has a higher androgenic number does that mean that there are more androgenic sides associated with that compound? Or does it work off a ratio system, i.e 100Anabolic /50 Androgenic has greater androgenic sides than 200Anabolic /50 Androgenic? Thanks
- 05-28-2011, 04:30 AM
- 05-28-2011, 08:06 AMAntæus Labs rep
05-28-2011, 11:50 AM
Thanks for the reply Henry. So basically the numbers are a comparison to methl test, however they were derived from tests done to rats as opposed to humans. Basically from what I gathered, it is better for a steroid to be anabolic than androgenic, since if it is more androgenic it is associated with sides such as increased facial hair, deeper voice etc.... Is this correct?
05-28-2011, 06:15 PM
05-28-2011, 11:56 PM
Ok thanks fot the clarrification. BTW I have read many of your post from heaps of forums, big Fan man, your knowledge is great...
05-29-2011, 12:16 AM
They don't really mean much. If they did, Epistane would be adding 50lbs of dry muscle to you in a week.
05-29-2011, 01:01 AM
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