notwerby
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1-testosterone differs from testosterone in another way as well. Being a 5alpha-reduced androgen (a DHT derivative) it simply cannot aromatize to estrogens. The same goes for 1[font=arial,helvetica][size=-1]AD[/size][/font][font=arial,helvetica][size=-1] itself — no estrogen transformation can occur. This makes 1 [/size][/font][font=arial,helvetica][size=-1]AD unique compared to other pro [/size][/font][font=arial,helvetica][size=-1]hormones — all of which can either aromatize directly, convert to a product that aromatizes, or both. So what does this mean in the real world? It means that your chances of getting gynecomastia (bitch tits) from 1AD is essentially zero, and that water retention side effects are vastly reduced compared to other pro [/size][/font][font=arial,helvetica][size=-1]hormones. - The pumping station[/size][/font]
Is this correct? Big Cat's article says there isnt enough data for him to make accurate analyzations. How does that compare to the other PH's that are supposed to have low sides, like Nor-diol, or 1,4 andro?
Also i read on some random post that people got more strenght gains with 1ad than size gains, so if im trying to cover up the fact that im takin ph's from my parents; like when i come visit from school, would this be a good choice?
Is this correct? Big Cat's article says there isnt enough data for him to make accurate analyzations. How does that compare to the other PH's that are supposed to have low sides, like Nor-diol, or 1,4 andro?
Also i read on some random post that people got more strenght gains with 1ad than size gains, so if im trying to cover up the fact that im takin ph's from my parents; like when i come visit from school, would this be a good choice?