What to you guys make of this. A guy on a hairloss forum wrote about how he has been on finasteride somtimes in larger doses, then moved on to dutasteride. He has most of the sexual side effects as you would expect. These include GYNO, lack of libido, decreased semen volume and fat gain.
He decided to get a blood test done for estrodol. He got his blood tests back and he was EXTREMELY LOW. He did not give reference ranges or the actual result.
How could this man have gyno, yet have low estrodol? Is it because his total E might be elevated? Or somtihing to do with his bioavailable E and if so, do bioavailable E and Estrodol have any similarities, like do they usually reflect each others results, the same way bioavailbe T and free T usually do?
Is it possible for some finasteride sufferers to have some kind of hidden estrogen dominence? Is that even possible?