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phyviti
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I hope that some of you may be able to shed some light on a subject that has been bothering me. Suppose a person's testosterone was originally at the upper end of the normal range and dropped to the middle of the normal range (e.g. from 900 to 500). Would this person experience the same problems as someone with hypogonadism? Other than by observing symptoms, is there any way to tell if testosterone levels have fallen without prior blood tests and in the case that the problem is secondary to the testis (i.e. LH and FSH are not high)? I guess I'm specifically referring to the lowered testosterone levels that have been documented to result from chronic disease such as Lupus and sarcoidosis. Is someone in this situation out of luck when it comes to getting help?