json75
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Considering you need supraphysiological levels of testosterone to see reasonable amount of gains......
If M1-D only has less than 600mgs of the "anabolic agent" per optimal dosage (6 pills day). That would mean that this "anabolic agent" is more potent than the original 4-AD, that is if you were to expect gains at that dose.
I'm not trying to start crap, I just want to understand how it could be anabolic at all.
It seems like you'd be adding an inferior anabolic hormone compared to your bodies own testosterone, causing a suppresion that at best would be the equivelancy to that of "your own" testosterone would yeild as far as gains.
To get a reasonable anabolic respose from the og 4-ad, you need to dose it at least at 600mgs, the more the better.
M1-D comes in considerably less than that at optimal doses.
And yes I'm taking into account that the added AI in M1-D is likely to cause a more succesfull test conversion.
Thanks
If M1-D only has less than 600mgs of the "anabolic agent" per optimal dosage (6 pills day). That would mean that this "anabolic agent" is more potent than the original 4-AD, that is if you were to expect gains at that dose.
I'm not trying to start crap, I just want to understand how it could be anabolic at all.
It seems like you'd be adding an inferior anabolic hormone compared to your bodies own testosterone, causing a suppresion that at best would be the equivelancy to that of "your own" testosterone would yeild as far as gains.
To get a reasonable anabolic respose from the og 4-ad, you need to dose it at least at 600mgs, the more the better.
M1-D comes in considerably less than that at optimal doses.
And yes I'm taking into account that the added AI in M1-D is likely to cause a more succesfull test conversion.
Thanks