On an empty stomach - with food - or doesn't matter?
thanks -

doesn't seem to matter really. Try and take a dose right when you wake up. I take it with grapefruit juice first thing in the morning.
Its a pro hormone (will need to be converted in the body to bolasterone)so you may get better absorbtion on an empty stomach. The grapefruit juice could possibly help also.
Trust in the LORD with all your heart, And lean not on your own understanding; In all your ways acknowledge Him, And He shall direct your paths . Proverbs 3:5-6
If I want to take the recommended 4mg dosage, should I take all 4mg in the morning, or 2mg morning, and 2mg in the afternoon?
Whats most effective?
2mg twice day. spaced in 8~12 hours.
Absortion will be better with some fat. go with fish oil + bolasterone.
I hear taking methyls with carbs and EFAs makes it a little easier on the liver.
I don't know if dimethyls are equally harsh on the liver at methyls. but i do know one thing for sure - three days in and this does seem as powerful as they advertise in comparison to other new substances after three days. i am not totally there - but getting same feeling as the old PH days. arm w/o tonight - my best w/o - so we'll see. i may start a separate thread on how this goes!
double M - have you used this yet?
this is perfects, also to keep in mind, boladrol is a diol compound, and does not need to convert in order to bind to the androgen receptor.
whats this mean? it is already an active compound, but does have the potential to convert into a stronger one, but conversion can go both ways over and over, so I would put more weight in the diol binding to the ar & exerting its effects.
this is right, or if you bought two bottles (does it come in bottles or packages?) you can run a higher dose after the first 2 weeks, (like 6-8mg)
no, fats dont do much to help absorbtion of methylated compounds, best to take it on an empty stomach.
if you have a non methylated pro hormone, like 4-androstenediol for example, a healthy amount of fats would aid in absorbtion.
and the op could always go for maximum absorbtion by supository administration.![]()
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boladrol is a andro-diol pro hormone. diols are different than diones in that d/t their structure, they are already able to bind to the androgen receptor.
the binding to the a.r. will not be as strong as say bolasterone, but still binds to the androgen receptor.
another common one is cdma, commonly known as halodrol. this is an already active compound which converts into a more potent compound, but does not need to convert in order to bind to the ar.
all diol compounds will have this ability.
just because something can convert into another more potent compound, doesn't mean it isn't already able to have interaction.
this is a common misconception.
and because it is 7,17 dimethylated, it has oral availability, and does not need to convert.
another thing people dont realize is that diol's are incapable of aromatization. meaning, some users of this compound (those who don't see alot of water retention) who have poor conversion, will see possibly leaner gains, and may also have to dose higher, d/t it not binding as strongly as bolasterone to the androgen receptor.
I posted all of this information in the boladrol introduction thread way back.
other more popular diol compounds include:
halodrol
pro magnon
m14add
none of these need to convert to be active, they are already active steroids in their own.
Ok that was very clear and concise. This explains why diols have a higher potency than diones. Thankyou
Now this I don't agree with. If all diols are incapable of aromatization then why does Methyl 1, 4-Diol have considerable amounts of estrogen conversion? Because of the abscence of the 4-chloro. Diols/diones have little to do with aromatizing. 4-androstenediol is another perfect example, it's a diol with considerable aromatization.another thing people dont realize is that diol's are incapable of aromatization. meaning, some users of this compound (those who don't see alot of water retention) who have poor conversion, will see possibly leaner gains, and may also have to dose higher, d/t it not binding as strongly as bolasterone to the androgen receptor.
Sorry not trying to pick apart your post, my original question was answered. Thanks
because like bolasterone (converted boladrol) m14add converts into dianabol, which is also a compound which like bolasterone, converts into a more potent estrogen.
4-androstenediol converts into testosterone, which aromatizes into estrogen.
bolasterone + aromatase enzyme= di methyl estradiol
dianabol + aromatase enzyme= methyl estradiol.
testosterone + aromatase enzyme= estradiol & dione
all of these compounds contain a 3-ketone, but the diol's do not have a 3 ketone until they convert via enzymes into these more potent compounds.
but again, like I said, all this information I posted can be found in the original boladrol release thread.
I also posted a good bit of this info in the thread asking me to come into and talk about the compound, from schwell:
This would, theoretically, mean that boladrol doesn't convert to Bolasterone at a high rate because many users are experiencing, like myself, lean gains. So if bolasterone has a higher estrogen conversion than Dianabol and M14ADD has a higher estrogen conversion than Boladrol then something must be interfering with Boladrol's conversion because Boladrol should aromatize at a higher rate than M14ADD.. see what i'm saying?
I've heard this information before so I know you're right.
well, it has been suggested in a paper that bolasterone's conversion into methyl estradiol is significantly less than that of methyl testosterone, which is just one less methyl (the 7a).
7a methylation greatly changes the compound, in the same sense that adding a 17a methyl changes a compound.
for example, boldenone has less aromatization than testosterone, but add a 17a methyl, and (now dianabol) has a higher rate or aromatization, also into a more potent estrogen.
so it is most likely the 7a methylation that changes up the compound in this way, as well as many others.
bolasterone's estrogen conversion would be more potent than dianabols, because of the extra 7a methylation, but this is also what is suggested to cause it's estrogen conversion to be so much less than that of methyl testosterone.
remember "more potent" and "the rate of estrogen conversion" are two different things, which bolasterone seems to have lowered conversion into estrogen, but that the estrogen converted will just hang around longer.
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Well one would have to run Bolasterone to see if it does aromatize as high as Dianabol. So I guess the di-methyl estradiol has no merit in that sense. How could a methylation at the 7th position reduce a dimethyl estrogen to being less potent in aromatization than a methyl estrogen? Wish I could see that paper you read
I do have it, here is some of what it says:
Thus it was suggested that structural
modifications (7a methylation) of a compound can lead to changes in its biological
activity based on binding affinity, differences in absorption,
binding to plasma proteins and/or susceptibility to the action of
metabolizing enzymes.
[...]
7-Alkyltestosterone derivatives show a progressive
loss in activity, as competitive inhibitors of aromatase, as chain
length increases. The change in binding affinity of these compounds
seems too gradual to be the result of an absolute lack
of bulk tolerance by the receptor.
The similar affinities found for
the 7-hydroxypropyl and the isosteric 7-butyl derivatives of
testosterone indicate that the reduction in affinity cannot arise
solely as a consequence of a hydrophobic chain into a hydrophobic
pocket.