I'm wondering why most cycles, (for example 1-T + 4-AD) are recommended at a minimum of 4 weeks? I've read that the PH's don't "kick in" until weeks 3-5, but is that just when people start noticing it's doing its job, or is there a physiological reason that the effects would ramp up?
One reason I ask is that I've also read that it takes about 10 days for the testes to start shutting down in the prescence of exgenous testosterone. And that one of the major post-cycle problems is that the testes aren't capable of producing pre-cycle levels of testosterone, even with Nolva, Clomid, or what-have-you, because of atrophy. (Hence the HCG use at the end of AAS stacks, then the clomid/nolva.)
So it makes me wonder if the conservative, and some would say ineffective, 2 weeks on, 2weeks off routine isn't the best way to go. Sure, the gains would seem slower. But if you are getting the benefit of the PH's, with diminished post-cycle problems, wouldn't that be far better in the long run?
Please comment. I don't understand the mechanisms all that well, and I know most of you are very well informed, as well as experienced.